As of November 12, 2026, Phenibut is in a legal gray area (sold in practice, exposed to an interpretive ban theory) in District of Columbia. DC analogue act presents interpretive phenibut exposure. Controlling source: D.C. Code 48-902.14, treatment of controlled substance analogues.
Verified November 12, 2026 (hash check) · confidence: under reviewIs Phenibut Legal? Every state and federal law
The District treats a qualifying controlled substance analogue intended for human consumption as Schedule I. The definition includes substances with substantially similar effects to a Schedule I or II substance without expressly requiring structural similarity. Phenibut and Schedule I GHB have overlapping sedative effects and GABA-B activity; whether those effects meet the statutory standard is interpretive.
(2) A substance that has a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II;
Among District of Columbia’s 2 neighbors, Maryland is restricted; Virginia is legal.
Open the interactive map · Every compound in District of Columbia · Where Phenibut is banned · Embed this map
Not federally scheduled. Phenibut is not federally scheduled; FDA restricts dietary supplement marketing Federal detail
6 instruments on file for this compound’s framework in District of Columbia; 5 of 5 citations above are official sources. Each text carries its source and a fingerprint that changes when the law does.
1c939a660084f6e6(c) Hallucinogenic Substances: Unless specifically exempted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following hallucinogenic substances, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation (for the purposes of this paragraph only, the term "isomer" includes the optical, position, and geometric isomers):
(1) 1-[1-(2-Thienyl)cyclohexyl]piperidine;
(2) 1- [1-(2-thienyl)cyclohexyl]pyrrolidine;
(3) 1-(1-Phenylcyclohexyl)-pyrrolidine,Pyrrolidine analog of phencyclidine, PCPy, PHP;
(4) (2C-C) 2-(4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine;
(5) (2C-D) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-methylphenyl)ethanamine;
(6) (2C-E) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-ethylphenyl)ethanamine;
(7) (2C-H) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine;
(8) (2C-I) 2-(4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine;
(9) (2C-N) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-nitro-phenyl)ethanamine;
(10) (2C-P) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4(n)-propylphenyl)ethanamine;
(11) (2C-T-2) 2-[4-(ethylthio)-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine;
(12) (2C-T-4)2-[4-(Isopropylthio)-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl] ethanamine;
(13) (2C-T-7) 2,5-Dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylthiophenethylamine);
(14) 2-(4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl) ethanamine (25B-NBOMe);
(15) 2-(4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl) ethanamine 25C-NBOMe); and
(16) 2-(4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl) ethanamine (25I-NBOMe);
(17) 2,5-Dimethoxyamphetamine;
(18) 2,5-Dimethoxy-4-ethylamphetamine;
(19) 3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine;
(20) 3,4-Methylenedioxyamphetamine;
(21) 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine;
(22) 3,4,5-Trimethoxyamphetamine;
(23) 4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-amphetamine;
(24) 4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine;
(25) 4-Methoxyamphetamine;
(26) 4-Methylaminorex;
(27) 4-Methyl-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine;
(28) 5-flouro-UR-144 and XLR11[1-(5-Fluoro-pentyl)1Hindol-3-yl](2,2,3,3- tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone;
(29) 5-Methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine;
(30) 5-Methoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (other name: 5-MeO-DIPT);
(31) 5-Methoxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine;
(32) Bufotenine;
(33) Diethyltryptamine;
(34) Dimethyltryptamine;
(35) N-Ethyl-1-phenylcyclohexylamine;
(36) Ibogaine;
(37) Lysergic acid diethylamide;
(38) Mescaline;
(39) N-Ethyl-1-phenylcyclohexylamine;
(40) N-Ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;
(41) N-Methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;
(42) Parahexyl--7374; some trade or other names: 3-Hexyl-1-hydroxy-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,6,9-trimethyl-6Hdibenzo[b,d]pyran; Synhexyl;
(43) Peyote;
(44) Psilocybin;
(45) Psilocyn;
(46) Thiophene analog of phencyclidine;
(47) (2C-T) 2-(2,5-dimethoxy-4-(methylthio)phenyl)ethanamine; OR 4-methylthio-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine;
(48) 4- methylthio-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine;
(49) (2C-B-butterFLY) 2-(10-Bromo-2,3,4,7,8,9 hexahydropyrano[2,3-g]chromen-5-yl)ethanamine;
(50) (2C-B-FLY) 2-(8-bromo-2,3,6,7-tetrahydrofuro [2,3-f][1]benzofuran-4- yl)ethanamine;
(51) (2C-B-hemiFLY, 2CB-5- hemiFLY) 2-(7-Bromo-5-methoxy-2,3-dihydro-1-benzofuran-4- yl)ethanamine;
(52) (2C-B-FLY-NBOMe) N-(2-Methoxybenzyl)-1-(8-bromo-2,3,6,7- tetrahydrobenzo[1,2-b:4,5-b']difuran-4-yl)-2-aminoethane;
(53) (2C-B-NBOMe, 2,5B-NBOMe) 2-(4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine; OR 2,5-Dimethoxy-4- bromo-N-(2-methoxybenzyl) phenethylamine
(54) 2CBCB-NBOMe N-(2-methoxybenzyl)-1-[(7R)-3-bromo-2,5-dimethoxybicyclo[4.2.0]octa-1,3,5-trien-7-yl]methanamine;
(55) 2C-C-NBOMe, 2,5C-NBOMe 2-(4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine; OR 2,5-Dimethoxy-4-chloro-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)phenethylamine;
(56) 2C-H-NBOMe, 2,5H-NBOMe 2-(2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine;
(57) 2C-I-NBOH, 2,5I-NBOH N-(2-Hydroxybenzyl)-4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine;
(58) 2C-I-NBOMe, 2,5INBOMe, 2,5I-NBOMe, 25I-NBOMe, NBOMe-2C-I, BOM-CI 2- 2-(4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine; OR 2,5-Dimethoxy-4-iodo-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)phenethylamine;
(59) (2CBCB-NBOMe) N-(2-methoxybenzyl)-1-[(7R)-3-bromo-2,5- dimethoxybicyclo[4.2.0]octa-1,3,5-trien-7-yl]methanamine
(60) (2C-H-NBOMe, 2,5H-NBOMe) 2-(2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine
(61) (2C-I-NBOH, 2,5I-NBOH) N-(2-Hydroxybenzyl)-4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine;
(62) 2C-TFM-NBOMe) 2-(4-trifluoromethyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-[(2-ethoxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine;
(63) (25I-NBF) 2-(4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-[(2- fluorophenyl)methyl]ethanamine;
(64) (25I-NBMD, NBMD-2C-I, Cimbi-29) 2-(4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2,3ethylenedioxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine;
(65) (3C-B-FLY) 2-(4-bromo-2,3,6,7-tetrahydrofurobensofuran-8-yl)-1- methyl-ethylamine;
(66) (4-CAB, AEPCA) 4-Chlorophenylisobutylamine; OR 1-(4-chlorophenyl)butan-2-amine; OR 4-chloro-α-ethylphenethylamine;
(67) (4-FA, PAL-303, Flux, Flits, R2D2) para-fluoroamphetamine; OR 4-fluoroamphetamine; OR (RS)-1-(4-Fluorophenyl)propan-2-amine;
(68) (5-APB) 5-(2-Aminopropyl)benzofuran;
(69) (5-APDB) 5-(2-Aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran; 1-(2,3-dihydro-1-benzofuran-5-yl)propan-2-amine; 5-(2-Aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran (3-Desoxy-MDA, EMA-4)
(70) (6-APB; Benzofury) 6-(2-aminopropyl)benzofuran; OR 1-benzofuran-6-ylpropan-2-amine;
(71) (6-APDB) 6-(2-Aminopropyl)-2,3,-dihydrobenzofuran;
(72) (APB) ((2-aminopropyl)benzofuran); OR [(2- aminopropyl)benzofuran]; OR (2-aminopropyl)benzofuran;
(73) (APDB) ((2-aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran); OR [(2- aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran]; OR (2-aminopropyl)- 2,3-dihydrobenzofuran;
(74) (bromo-dragonFLY) 1-(4-Bromofuro[2,3-f][1]benzofuran-8-yl)propan-2-amine; OR bromo-benzodifuranyl-isopropylamine;
(75) (DOB) 2,5-Dimethoxy-4-bromoamphetamine; OR 1-(4-Bromo-2,5- dimethoxyphenyl)-2-aminopropane;
(76) (DOC) 2,5-Dimethoxy-4-chloroamphetamine; OR 1-(4-chloro-2,5- dimethoxy-phenyl)propan-2-amine; OR 4-chloro-2,5- dimethoxyamphetamine;
(77) (DOI) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-iodoamphetamine; OR 1-(2,5-dimethoxy-4- iodophenyl)-propan-2-amine; OR 4-iodo-2,5- dimethoxyamphetamine;
(78) DOM, STP 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxy-amphetamine; OR 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxy-a-methylphenethylamine;
(79) (Fluoroamphetamine);
(80) MDA 3,4-methylenedioxy amphetamine;
(81) MDMA 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine;
(82) MDE, MDEA3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine; OR N-ethylalpha-methyl-3,4(methylenedioxy)phenethylamine;
(83) Mescaline 3,4,5-trimethoxyphenethylamine;
(84) (Mescaline-NBOMe) N-(2-Methoxybenzyl)-2-(3,4,5- trimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine; OR 3,4,5-trimethoxy-N-(2- methoxybenzyl)phenethylamine;
(85) (PMMA, 4-MMA) para-Methoxy-N-methylamphetamine; OR 4-methoxy-N- methylamphetamine; OR 1-(4-methoxyphenyl)-N-methyl- propan-2-amine;
(86) TMA, 3,4,5-trimethoxyamphetamine;
(87) 2,5-Dimethoxy-4-ethylamphetamine, (DOET, DOE);
(88) Eticyclidine (PCE, CI-400);
(89) N-Ethyl-mda; Eve (amphetamine); 3,4-Methylenedioxyethylamphetamine; 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine;
(90) 4-Methylthioamphetamine (4-MTA);
(91) 2-(4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2- methoxybenzyl)ethanamine, (2C-B-NBOMe);
(92) 4- Methyl- 2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine, (2C-D);
(93) 2-(4-Methyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N- (2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine, (2C-D-NBOMe);
(94) 4-Ethyl- 2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine, (2C-E);
(95) 2-5-Dimethoxy-4-iodo-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine, (2C-I-NB0Me);
(96) 1-(Benzofuran-5-yl)-N-methylpropan-2-amine, (5-MAPB) (1-(benzofuran-5-yl)-N-methylpropan-2-amine);
(97) N-Methy\-(6-bromo-3,4- methylenedioxypheny1)propan-2-amine, (6-Br-MDMA);
(98) 1-(6-chloro-1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-N-methylpropan-2-amine, 6-Chloro-MDMA (6-Cl-MDMA, 2-Cl-4,5-MDMA);
(99) (AB-FUBINACA) N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide;
(100) (ADB-PINACA) N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide;
(101) (ADBICA) N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-pentyl-1H-indole-3-carboxamide;
(102) (APICA) N-(1-adamantyl)-1-pentylindole-3-carboxamide;
(103) (CUMYL-THPINACA) N-(2-Phenypropan-2-yl)-1-(tetrahydropyran 4- ylmethyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide;
(104) (EAM-220O1); (5"-fluoro-JWH-210) (1-(5-Flouropentyl)-1H-indol-3-yl)(4-ethylnaphthalen-1-yl)methadone;
(105) (FUB-JWH-018) (1-(4-Fluorobenzyl)-1H-indol-3-yl)(naphthalene-1-yl)methadone;
(106) (FUB-PB-22); (UNII-DS46154N3F); (DS46154N3F) quinolin-8-yl 1-[(4-fluorophenyl)methyl]indole-3-carboxylate;
(107) (MDMB-CHMICA) N-(1-Methoxy-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2yl)-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamide;
(108) (MDMB-FUBINACA) N-(1-Methoxy-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide;
(109) (PX-2) N-(1-Amino-1-oxo-3-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide;
(110) (2-FMC) 1-(2-flourophenyl)-2-methylaminopropan-1-one;
(111) (2-MMC) 1-(2-methylphenyl)-2-methylaminopropan-1-one;
(112) (3,3-DMMC) 1-(3,4- dimethylphenyl)-2-methylaminopropan-1-one;
(113) (3-CMC) 1-(3-chlorophenyl)-2-methylaminopropan-1-one;
(114) (3-MeOMC) 1-(3-methoxyphenylaminopropan-1-one;
(115) (3-MMC) 1-(3-methylphenyl)-2-methylaminopropan-1-one;
(116) (4-BMC) 1-(4-bromophenyl)-2-methylaminopropan-1-one;
(117) (4-CMC) 1-(4-chlorophenyl)- 2-methylaminopropan-1-one;
(118) (4-MMC) 4-methyl methcathinone or 4-methyl ephedrone;
(119) (1-butyl-1H-indol-3-yl)(4-methylnaphthalen-1-yl)methanone;
(120) [1-[(1-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl]-1H-indol-3-yl]-1-naphthalenyl-methanone;
(121) 3–(4-methoxyphenyl)–2-methyl-1-[(2–(4-morpholinyl)ethyl)– 1H-indol-3-yl]-methanone;
(122) 2–(3-methoxyphenyl)–1–(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)-ethanone;
(123) (2-iodophenyl)[1-[(1-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl]-1H-indol- 3-yl]-methanone;
(124) [1-[(1-methyl-2-piperdinyl)methyl]-1H-indol-3- yl]tricycle[3.3.1.13,7]dec-1-yl-methanone;
(125) 1-naphthalenyl(1-propyl-1H-indol-3-yl)-methanone;
(126) 5-[3–(1-naphthoyl)–1H-indole-1-yl]pentanenitrile;
(127) 3–(1-naphthenylmethyl)–1-pentyl-1H-indole;
(128) (2-methyl-1-propyl-1H-indol-3-yl)–1-napthalenyl-methanone;
(129) 1-naphthalenyl[1–(4-penten-1-yl)–1H-indol-3-yl]-methanone;
(130) (4-bromonaphthalen-1-yl)(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone;
(131) (4-fluoronaphthalen-1-yl)(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone;
(132) (2-methyl-1-phenyl-1H-indol-3-yl)–1-naphthalenyl-methanone;
(133) 2–(2-chlorophenyl)–1–(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)-ethanone;
(134) [1–(5-chloropentyl)–1H-indol-3-yl](2-iodophenyl)- methanone;
(135) (adamantan-1-yl)(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)-methanone;
(136) (2-iodo-5-nitrophenyl)-[1–(1-methylpiperidin-2-ylmethyl)– 1H-indol-3-yl]-methanone;
(137) (1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclo-propyl)methanone;
(138) [1–(5-fluoropentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)](2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclo-propyl)methanone;
(139) [1–(2-morpholinoethyl)–1H-indol-3-yl](2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone;
(140) 1-[(tetrahydro-2H-pyran-4-yl)methyl]-1H-indol-3-yl-(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone;
(141) 1-pentyl-N-tricyclo[3.3.1.13,7]dec-1-yl-1H-indole-3-carboxamide;
(142) 1-pentyl-N-tricyclo[3.3.1.13,7]dec-1-yl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide;
(143) 1–(5-fluoropentyl)–N-tricyclo[3.3.1.13,7]dec-1-yl-1H-indole-3-carboxamide;
(144) [1–(5-chloropentyl)–1H-indol-3-yl](2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone;
(145) (1-isopentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)(naphthalen-1-yl)methanone;
(146) 1–(5-fluoropentyl-N-tricyclo[3.3.1.13,7]dec-1-yl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide;
(147) (1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)(4-propyl-1-naphthalenyl)-methanone;
(148) [1–(5-chloropentyl)–1H-indol-3-yl](2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone;
(149) (4-methyl-naphthalen-1-yl)[1–(pent-4-en-1-yl)–1H-indol-3-yl]methanone;
(150) (2-methoxy-1-naphthalenyl)(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone;
(151) (3-methoxy-phenyl)(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone;
(152) [1–(5-fluoropentyl)–1H-indol-3-yl](4-ethyl-1-naphthalenyl)- methanone;
(153) quinolin-8-yl 1-pentyl-1H-indole-3-carboxylate;
(154) quinolin-8-yl 1–(5-fluoropentyl-1H-indole-3-carboxylate;
(155) 1–(cyclohexylmethyl)–8-quinolinyl-ester-1H-indole-3-carboxylic acid;
(156) N–(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)–1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide;
(157) 1–(5-fluoropentyl)–N–(naphthalene-1-yl)–1H-indole-3-carboxamide;
(158) N–(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)–1–(4-fluorobenzyl)–1H-indazole-3-carboxamide;
(159) N–(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)–1–(4-fluorobenzyl)–1H-indazole-3-carboxamide;
(160) N–(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)–1-pentyl-1H-indole-3-carboxamide;
(161) 2-iodophenyl)(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone;
(162) [5–(2-methylphenyl)–1-pentyl-1H-pyrrol-3-yl]-1-naphthalenyl-methanone;
(163) 1-pentyl-N–(naphthalene-1-yl)–1H-indole-3-carboxamide;
(164) 1–(5-chloropentyl)–1H-indol-3-yl](4-methyl-1-naphthalenyl)-methanone;
(165) (4-methyl-naphthalen-1-yl)[2-methyl-1–(pent-4-en-1-yl)– 1H-indol-3-yl)]methanone;
(166) [1–(5-fluoropentyl)–1H-indol-3-yl](o-tolyl)methanone;
(167) (2-ethylphenyl)(1–(5-fluoropentyl)–1H-indol-3-yl)methanone;
(168) [1–(5-chloropentyl)–1H-indol-3-yl](naphthalen-1-yl)methanone;
(169) [1–(5-bromopentyl)–1H-indol-3-yl](naphthalen-1-yl)methanone;
(170) (1–(5-fluoropentyl)–1H-indazol-3-yl)(naphthalene-1-yl)methanone;
(171) 1-[(1-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl]-1H-indol-3-yl](2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone;
(172) (1–(1-methylazepan-2-yl)–1H-indol-3-yl)(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone;
(173) 4-hydroxy-3,3,4-trimethyl-1–(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)pentan-1-one;
(174) [1–(4-fluoropentyl)–1H-indol-3-yl]-1-naphthenyl-methanone;
(175) 2–(2-iodophenyl)–1–(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)ethanone;
(176) (1-hexyl-1H-indol-3-yl)(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone;
(177) (2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)[1–(4,4,4-trifluorobutyl)– 1H-indol-3-yl]methanone;
(178) 7-methoxy-1–(2-morpholinoethyl)–N–((1S,4R)–1,3,3-trimethylbicyclo[2.2.1]heptan-2-yl)–1H-indole-3-carboxamide;
(179) (4-fluorobenzyl)–1H-indole-3-quinolin-8-yl
Carboxylate;
(180) 1–(4-fluorobenzyl)–1H-indole-3-naphthalen-1-yl
Carboxylate;
(181) N–(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)–1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide;
(182) N–(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)–1–(5-fluoropentyl)–1H-indole-3-carboxamide;
(183) (1–(4-fluoropentyl)–1H-indol-3-yl)(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone;
(184) 1-naphthalenyl(1-pentyl-1H-indazol-3-yl)methanone;
(185) N-naphthalenyl-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide;
(186) N–(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)–1–(cyclohexylmethyl)–1H-indazole-3-carboxamide;
(187) naphthalene-1-yl(9-pentyl-9H-carbazol-3-yl)methanone;
(188) naphthalene-1-yl 1–(5-fluoropentyl)–1H-indole-3-carboxylate;
(189) methyl 3-methyl-2–(1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido;
(190) methyl 2–(1–5-fluoropentyl)–1H-indazole-3-caboxamido) methylbutanoate;
(191) N-benzyl-1-pentyl-1H-indole-3-carboxamide;
(192) N-benzyl-1–(5-fluoropentyl)–1H-indole-3-carboxamide;
(193) methyl 2–(1–(4-fluorobenzyl)–1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)–3-methylbutanoate;
(194) quinolin-8-yl 1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxylate;
(195) quinolin-8-yl 1–(5-fluoropentyl)–1H-indazole-3-carboxylate;
(196) naphthalene-2-yl 1–(2-fluorophenyl)–1H-indazole-3-carboxylate;
(197) N–(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)–1–(cyclohexylmethyl)–1H-indazole-3-carboxamide;
(198) (1–(4-flourobenzyl)–1H-indol-3-yl)(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone;
(199) N–(1-amino-1-oxo—3-phenylpropan-2-yl)–1–(5-fluoropentyl)–1H-indole-3-carboxamide;
(200) N–(1-amino-1-oxo—3-phenylpropan-2-yl)–1–(5-fluoropentyl)–1H-indazole-3-carboxamide;
(201) methyl (1–(cyclohexylmethyl)–1H-indazole-3-carbonyl-L-valinate;
(202) N-[(1–(cyclohexylmethyl)–1H-indazole-3yl)carbonyl]- 3-methyl-L-valine, methyl ester;
(203) methyl 2–(1–(cyclohexylmethyl)–1H-indole-3-carboxamido)–3,3-dimethylbutanoate;
(204) (1–(5-fluoropentyl)–1H-benzo[d]imidazole-2-yl)(naphthalene-1-yl)methanone;
(205) (1–(4-fluorobenzyl)–1H-indol-3-yl)(napthalen-1-yl)methanone;
(206) methyl 2–(1–(4-fluorobenzyl)–1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)–3,3-dimethylbutanoate;
(207) quinolin-8-yl1–(4-fluorobenzyl)–1H-indazole-3-carboxylate;
(208) N–(adamantan-1-yl)–1–(4-fluorobenzyl)–1H-indazole-3-carboxamide;
(209) N–(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)–1–(5-fluoropentyl)–1H-indole-3-carboxamide;
(210) 2-[(1S,3R)–3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-5–(2-methylheptyl-2-yl)phenol;
(211) 3-hydroxy-2[3-methyl-6–(1-methylethyenyl)–2-cyclohexen-1-yl]-5-pentyl-2,5-cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione;
(212) 4-[4–(1,1-dimethylheptyl)–2,6-dimethoxyphenyl]-6,6-dimethyl-bicyclo[3.1.1]hept-2-ene-2-methanol;
(213) 1-naphthalenyl[4–(pentylox)–1-naphthalenyl]-methanone;
(214) 3–(2–(hydroxymethyl)–2,3-dihydro-1H-inden-4-yloxy)phenyl 4,4,4-trifluorobutane-1-sulfonate;
(215) N–(benzo[1,3]dioxol-5-ylmethyl)–7-methoxy-2-oxo-8-pentyloxy-1,2-dihydroquinoline-3-carboxamide;
(216) N-[3–(2-methoxyethyl)–4,5-dimethylthiazol-2-ylidene]-2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropane-carboxamide;
(217) 5-chloro-3-ethyl-N-[4–(piperidin-1-yl)phenethyl)–1H-indole-2-carboximide;
(218) N-[4–(dimethylamino)phenethyl]-3-ethyl-5-fluoro-1H-indole-2-carboximide;
(219) N–(1-benzylpyrrolidin-3-yl)–5-chloro-3-ethyl-1H-indole-2-carboxamide;
(220) [5–(2-fluorophenyl)–1-pentyl-1H-pyrrol-3-yl](naphthalene-1-yl)methanone;
(221) (3’-(aminocarbonyl)[1,1’-biphenyl]-3-yl)-cyclohexyl-carbamate;
(222) 5–(biphenyl-4-ylmethyl)–N,N-dimethyl-1H-tetrazole-1-carboxamide;
(223) 6-methyl-2–(p-tolylamino)–4H-benzo[d][1,3]oxazin-4-one;
(224) [1,1'-biphenyl]-3-yl-carbamic acid, cyclohexyl ester;
(225) 4-hydroxy-N–(4-hydroxyphenethyl)–3–(pentylamino)- benzamide; and
(226) 3’-carbamoyl-6-hydroxy-[1,1’-biphenyl]-3-ylcyclohexylcarbamate;2b24f3426bdc09801203 SCHEDULE III ENUMERATED
1203.1 The controlled substances listed in this section are included in Schedule III of the Act unless removed therefrom pursuant to Section 201 of the Act:
(a) Schedule III shall consist of the following controlled substances by whatever official name, common or usual name, chemical name, or brand name designated, listed in this section:
(1) Stimulants: Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers (whether optical, positional, or geometric), and salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:
(A) The compounds, mixtures, or preparations in dosage unit form containing any stimulant substances listed in Schedule II which compounds, mixtures, or preparations were listed on August 25, 1971 as excepted compounds under Title 21 § 1308.32 of the Code of Federal Regulations (C.F.R.), and any other drug of the quantitative composition shown in that list for those drugs or which is the same except that it contains a lesser quantity of controlled substances;
(B) Benzphetamine;
(A) Chlorphentermine;
(D) Clortermine;
(E) Mazindol; and
(F) Phendimetrazine;
(2) Depressants: Unless listed in another schedule, any material compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having a potential for abuse associated with depressant effect on the central nervous system:
(A) Any compound, mixture, or preparation containing:
(i) Amobarbital;
(ii) Aprobarbital;
(iii) Butabarbital;
(iv) Butabarbital (secbutabarbital);
(v) Butalbital;
(vi) Butobarbital (butethal);
(vii) Secobarbital;
(viii) Pentobarbital; or any salt thereof and one (1) or more other active medicinal ingredients which are not listed in any schedule;
(ix) Perampanel;
(x) Talbutal;
(xi) Thiamylal;
(xii) Thiopental; and
(xiii) Vinbarbital;
(B) Any suppository dosage form containing:
(i) Amobarbital;
(ii) Aprobarbital;
(iii) Butabarbital;
(iv) Butabarbital (secbutabarbital);
(v) Butalbital;
(vi) Butobarbital (butethal);
(vii) Pentobarbital; or any salt of any of these drugs and approved by the Food and Drug Administration for marketing only as a suppository;
(viii) Secobarbital; and
(ix) Vinbarbital; and
(C) Any substance that contains any quantity of a derivative of barbituric acid, or any salt of a derivative of barbituric acid:
(i) Chlorhexadol;
(ii) Embutramide;
(iii) Any drug product containing gamma-hydroxybutric acid including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers.
(iv) Ketamine;
(v) Lysergic acid;
(vi) Lysergic acid amide;
(vii) Methyprylon;
(viii) Sulfondiethylmethane;
(ix) Sulfonethylmethane;
(x) Sulfonmethane; and
(xi) Tiletamine & Zolazepam Combination Product;
(3) Nalorphine;
(4) Narcotic drugs. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, in limited quantities as set forth below:
(A) Not more than one and eight-tenths (1.8) grams of codeine per one hundred (100) milliliters or not more than ninety (90) milligrams per dosage unit, with an equal or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium;
(B) Not more than one and eight-tenths (1.8) grams of codeine per one hundred (100) milliliters or not more than ninety (90) milligrams dosage unit, with one (1) or more active non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;
(C) Not more than three hundred (300) milligrams of dihydrocodeinone per one hundred (100) milliliters or not more than fifteen (15) milligrams per dosage unit, with a 4-fold or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium;
(D) Not more than three hundred (300) milligrams dihydrocodeine per one hundred (100) milliliters or not more than fifteen (15) milligrams per dosage unit with one (1) or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;
(E) Not more than one and eight-tenths (1.8) grams of dihydrocodeine per milliliters or not more than ninety (90) milligrams per dosage unit, with one (1) or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;
(F) Codeine and isoquinoline alkaloid ninety (90) milligrams per dosage unit;
(G) Codeine combination product ninety (90) milligrams per dosage unit;
(H) Dihydrocodeine combination product ninety (90) milligrams per dosage unit;
(I) Ethylmorphine combination product fifteen (15) milligrams per dosage unit;
(J) Hydrocodone and isoquinoline alkaloid less than fifteen (15) milligrams per dosage unit;
(K) Hydrocodone combination product less than fifteen (15) milligrams per dosage unit;
(L) Not more than three hundred (300) milligrams of ethylmorphine per one hundred (100) milliliters or not more than fifteen (15) milligrams per dosage unit, with one (1) or more ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;
(M) Not more than five hundred (500) milligrams of opium per one hundred (100) milliliters or per one hundred (100) grams or not more than twenty-five (25) milligrams per dosage unit, with one (1) or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;
(N) Opium combination product twenty-five (25) milligrams per dosage unit;
(A) Not more than fifty (50) milligrams of morphine per one hundred (100) milliliters or per one hundred (100) grams with one (1) or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts; and
(B) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing Buprenorphine or its salts;
(5) Anabolic Steroids: Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any quantity of the following substances, drug, or hormonal substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to testosterone (other than estrogens, progesterons, and corticosteroids) that promotes muscle growth and includes:
(A) Boldenone (17beta-hydroxyandrost-1,4- diene-3-one);
(B) Chlortestosterone (4-chlortestosterone);
(C) Clostebol(4-chloro-17beta-hydroxyandrost- 4-en-3-one);
(D) Dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro-17beta-hydroxy-17alpha-methylandrost-1,4-dien-3-one);
(E) Delta1-dihydrotestosterone (17beta-hydroxy-5alpha androst-1-en-3-one);
(F) Drostanolone(17beta-hydroxy-2alpha-methyl- 5alphaandrostan-3-one);
(G) Ethylestrenol(17alpha-ethyl-17beta-hydroxyestr- 4-ene);
(H) Fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17alpha-methy 11beta,17beta- dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
(I) Formebulone (formebolone);(2-formyl-17alpha- methyl11alpha,17beta-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one);
(J) Furazabol(17alpha-methyl- 17betahydroxyandrostano [2,3-c]-furazan);
(K) Mesterolone; (1alpha-methyl-17beta-hydroxy- 5alphaandrostan-3-one);
(L) Methandienone(17alpha-methyl- 17betahydroxyandrost- 1,4-diene-3-one);
(M) Methandriol (17alpha-methyl-3beta, 17betadihydroxyandrost-5-ene) (a.k.a. Methandrostenolone);
(N) Methenolone (1-methyl-17beta-hydroxy- 5alpha-androst1-en-3-one);
(O) Methyltestosterone (17alpha-methyl- 17betahydroxyandrost- 4-en-3-one);
(P) Mibolerone (7alpha,17alpha-dimethyl- 17betahydroxyestr- 4-en-3-one);
(C) Nandrolone (17beta-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);
(D) Norethandrolone (17alpha-ethyl-17beta-hydroxyestr - 4en-3-one);
(E) Oxandrolone (17alpha-methyl-17beta-hydroxy-
2-oxa5alpha-androstan-3-one);
(F) Oxymesterone (17alpha-methyl-4, 17betadihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
(G) Oxymetholone (17alpha-methyl-2- hydroxymethylene17beta-hydroxy-5alpha-androstan-3-one);
(H) Stanolone;
(I) Stanozolol (17alpha-methyl-17beta-hydroxy-5alpha
androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole);
(J) Testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo- 13,17-secoandrosta 1,4-dien-17-oic acid lactone);
(K) Testosterone (17beta-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
(L) Trenbolone (17beta-hydroxyestr-4,9,11-trien-3- one);
(AA) 13β-ethyl-17β-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one;
(BB) 17α-methyl-3α,17β-dihydroxy-5a-androstane;
(CC) 17α-methyl-3β,17β-dihydroxy-5a-androstane;
(DD) 17α-methyl-3β,17β-dihydroxyandrost-4-ene;
(EE) 17α-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17α-methyl-4- hydroxy-17β-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);
(FF) 17α-methyl-Δ1-dihydrotestosterone (17β-hydroxy-17α-methyl-5α-androst-1-en-3-one) (a.k.a. '17-α-methyl-1-testosterone');
(GG) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione (estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione);
(HH) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3α, 17β-dihydroxyestr- 4-ene);
(II ) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3β, 17β-dihydroxyestr- 4-ene);
(JJ) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4-en-3,17-dione);
(KK) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3α, 17β-dihydroxyestr- 5-ene);
(LL) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3β, 17β-dihydroxyestr- 5-ene);
(MM) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5-en-3,17-dione);
(NN) 1-androstenediol (3α,17β-dihydroxy-5α-androst- 1-ene);
(OO) 1-androstenediol (3β,17β-dihydroxy-5α-androst- 1-ene);
(PP) 1-androstenedione ([5α]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione);
(QQ) 3α,17β-dihydroxy-5a-androstane;
(RR) 3β,17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane;
(SS) 4-androstenediol (3β,17β-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene);
(TT) 4-androstenedione (androst-4-en-3,17-dione);
(UU) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17β-hydroxy-androstan- 3-one);
(VV) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17β-dihydroxy- estr-4-en-3-one);
(WW) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17β-dihydroxy-androst- 4-en-3-one);
(XX) 5-androstenediol (3β,17β-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene);
(YY) 5-androstenedione (androst-5-en-3,17-dione);
(ZZ) Androstanedione 5α-androstan-3,17-dione;
(AAA) Bolasterone (7α,17α-dimethyl-17β-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
(BBB) Boldione (androsta-1,4-diene-3,17-dione);
(CCC) Calusterone (7β,17α-dimethyl-17β-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
(DDD) Desoxymethyltestosterone (17α-methyl-5α- androst-2-en-17β-ol) (a.k.a. 'madol');
(EEE) Furazabol (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan);
(FFF) Mestanolone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxy- 5-androstan-3-one);
(GGG) Methasterone (2α,17α-dimethyl-5α-androstan- 17β-ol-3-one);
(HHH) Methyldienolone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one);
(III) Methyltrienolone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxyestra-4,9,11-trien-3-one);
(JJJ) Norbolethone (13β, 17α-diethyl-17β-hydroxygon- 4-en-3-one);
(KKK) Norclostebol (4-chloro-17β-hydroxyestr- 4-en-3-one);
(LLL) Normethandrolone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxyestr- 4-en-3-one);
(MMM) Prostanozol (17β-hydroxy-5α-androstano[3,2-c]pyrazole);
(NNN) Stenbolone (17β-hydroxy-2-methyl-[5α]-androst-1-en-3-one);
(OOO) Tetrahydrogestrinone (13β, 17α-diethyl-17β-hydroxygon- 4,9,11-trien-3-one)
(PPP) Δ1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a.'1-testosterone') (17β-hydroxy-5α-androst-1-en-3-one); and
(QQQ) Any salts, ester or isomer of a drug or substance described or listed in this paragraph, if that salt, ester, or isomer promotes muscle growth. Except the term does not include an anabolic steroid that is expressly intended for administration through implants to cattle or other nonhuman species and that has been approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for such administration. If any person prescribes, dispenses or distributes that steroid for human use the person shall be considered to have prescribed, dispensed or distributed an anabolic steroid within the meaning of this paragraph.,
(6) Hallucinogenic substances;
(7) Dronabinol (synthetic) in sesame oil and encapsulated in a soft gelatin capsule in a U.S. Food and Drug Administration approved drug product. [Some other names for dronabinol: 6aR-trans)-6a,7,8,10a-tetrahydro- 6,6,9- trimethyl-3-pentyl-6H-dibenzo [b,d]pyran-1-o1] or (-)-delta-9-(trans)-tetrahydrocannabinol]; and
(8) Cannabis.
(b) The Mayor may except by rule any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any stimulant or depressant substance listed in paragraphs (1) and (2) of subsection (a) of this section from the application of all or any part of this chapter if the compound, mixture, or preparation contains one (1) or more active medicinal ingredients not having a stimulant or depressant effect on the central nervous system, and if the admixtures are included therein in combinations, quantity, proportion, or concentration that vitiates the potential for abuse of the substances that have a stimulant or depressant effect on the central nervous system.05d8e948fc02c976(3) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following hallucinogenic substances, its salts, isomers and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation :
a1c2e7c1e4e0ab0d(3) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following hallucinogenic substances, its salts, isomers and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation : (A) 4-bromo-2, 5-dimethoxyamphetamine; (B) 2, 5 dimethoxyamphetamine; (C) 4-methoxyamphetamine; (D) 5-methoxy-3, 4-methylenedioxy amphetamine; (E) 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine; (F) 3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine [MDA]; (G) 3, 4, 5-trimethoxy amphetamine; (G-i) 25I-NBOMe (also known as 4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine); (G-ii) 25B-NBOMe (also known as 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine) (G-iii) 25C-NBOMe (also known as 2-(4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine); (G-iv) 5-APB (also known as α-methyl-5-benzofuranethanamine); (G-v) 5-APDB (also known as 2,3-dihydro-α-methyl-5-benzofuranethanamine); (G-vi) 6-APB (also known as α-methyl-6-benzofuranethanamine); (G-vii) 6-APDB (also known as 2,3-dihydro-α-methyl-6-benzofuranethanamine); (G-viii) 3-methoxy-PCE (also known as N-ethyl-1-(3-methoxyphenyl)-cyclohexanamine); (G-ix) 3-methoxy-PCP (also known as 1-[1-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexyl]-piperidine); (G-x) 4-methoxy-PCP (also known as 1-[1-(4-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexyl]piperidine); (G-xi) 5-methoxy-DALT, also known as: (i) 5-MeO-DALT; or (ii) 5-methoxy-N,N-di-2-propen-1-yl-1H-indole-3-ethanamine; (G-xii) 4-acetoxy DMT, also known as: (i) 4-AcO-DMT; or (ii) 3-[2-(dimethylamino)ethyl]-1H-indol-4-ol-4-acetate; (H) Bufotenine; (I) Diethyltryptamine; (J) Dimethyltryptamine; (K) Ethylamide analog of phencyclidine, PCE; (L) Ibogaine; (M) Lysergic acid diethylamide; (M-i) Methoxetamine (also known as 2-(ethylamino)-2-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexanone); (N) Mescaline; (O) Peyote; (P) N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate; (Q) N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate; (R) Psilocybin; (S) Psilocyn; (T) Pyrrolidine analog of phencyclidine, PCPY; (U) Thiophene analog of phencyclidine; (V) Repealed; (W) Parahexyl; (X) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine; (Y) 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine [MDMA]; (Z) Alpha-methyltryptamine (other name: AMT); (AA) 5-methoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (other name: 5- MeO-DIPT); (BB) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylthiophenethylamine (other name: 2C-T-7); (CC) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-ethylphenyl)ethanamine (2C-E); (DD) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-methylphenyl)ethanamine (2C-D); (EE) 2-(4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (2C-C); (FF) 2-(4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (2C-I); (GG) 2-[4-(Ethylthio)-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl]ethanamine (2C-T-2); (HH) 2-[4-(Isopropylthio)-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl]ethanamine (2C- T-4); (II) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (2C-H); (JJ) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-nitro-phenyl)ethanamine (2C-N); (KK) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylphenyl)ethanamine (2C-P); and (LL) Cathinone;
bac609eb1c7bfa3d§ 7–742.11. Definitions.
For the purposes of
this subchapter
, the term:
(1)
"Department" means the Department of Health.
(2)
“Food establishment” shall have the same meaning as provided in
§ 48-102(5)
.
(3)
"Microenterprise home kitchen business means a business that:
(A)
Operates out of a non-commercial kitchen facility located in a private home and is operated by a resident of the home where ready-to-eat food is handled, stored, or prepared to be offered for sale;
(B)
Sells ready-to-eat food products directly to consumers in accordance with
§ 7-742.12
and regulations adopted by the Department of Health;
(C)
Has obtained a home occupancy permit from the Department of Licensing and Consumer Protection pursuant to section 203 of Title 11 of the District of Columbia Municipal Regulations (11 DCMR § 203);
(D)
Does not prepare food with processes that require a Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) Plan pursuant to section 4202 of Title 25-A of the District of Columbia Municipal Regulations (25-A DCMR § 4202);
(E)
Does not include food manufacturing, and does not prepare alcohol-infused food products or food products containing cannabis, CBD, Kava, Kratom or any other unapproved food additive;
(F)
Is not a catering business, cottage food business, bed and breakfast, residence-based group home facility, or food truck;
(G)
Meets labeling requirements set forth in rules issued by the Department; and
(H)
Has applied for and is otherwise eligible for a vending site permit under
Chapter 1A of Title 37
.
(4)
“Microenterprise home kitchen permit” means a permit issued by the Department to an operator for the purpose of operating a microenterprise home kitchen business.
(5)
"Operator" means an individual who resides in the private home and who manages or controls the microenterprise home kitchen business.
(6)
“Ready-to-eat food” means:
(A)
Fully cooked food, including, but not limited to, meat, fish, fruit, and vegetables;
(B)
Raw fruit and vegetables that are washed and offered for sale whole or chopped;
(C)
Any other time or temperature control food that is cooked to the temperature and time required for the specific food in accordance with regulations made by the Department; or
(D)
A bakery item for which further cooking is not required for food safety.
(7)
"Time or temperature control food" means food that requires time or temperature controls for safety to limit pathogenic microorganism growth or toxin formation.
(
Oct. 3, 2001, D.C. Law 14–28, § 4935
;
as added July 1, 2023, D.C. Law 25-21, § 2, 70 DCR 6762
.)539dc599eeaf4c29(a) A controlled substances analogue shall, to the extent intended for human consumption, be treated for the purposes of any District of Columbia law as a controlled substance in Schedule I. (b) Except as provided in subsection (c) of this section, the term “controlled analogue” means: (1) a substance with a chemical structure that is substantially similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II; (2) A substance that has a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II; or (3) A substance that, with respect to a particular person, is represented to have or is intended to have a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to, or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II. (c) Such term does not include: (1) A controlled substance; (2) Any substance for which there is an approved new drug application; (3) With respect to a particular person any substance, if an exemption is in effect for investigational use, for that person, under § 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, approved June 25, 1938 (52 Stat. 1052, 21 U.S.C. § 355) to the extent conduct with respect to such substance is pursuant to such exemption; or (4) Any substance to the extent not intended for human consumption before such an exemption takes effect with respect to that substance.
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