As of November 12, 2026, Tianeptine is legal to sell at retail in Vermont. No named tianeptine restriction identified in reviewed Vermont sources. Controlling source: 18 V.S.A. Sec. 4201(6)(G).
Verified November 12, 2026 (hash check) · confidence: under reviewIs Tianeptine Legal? Every state and federal law
The official 2019 Health Department rule does not name tianeptine; subsequent orders remain a coverage gap.
(G) any drug, other than methamphetamine, that contains any quantity of a substance that the Department of Health so designates by such rule as having a serious potential for abuse arising out of its effect on the central nervous system.
Among Vermont's 3 neighbors, Massachusetts and New Hampshire are gray area; New York is legal.
Open the interactive map · Every compound in Vermont · Where Tianeptine is banned · Embed this map
Not federally scheduled. Tianeptine is not federally scheduled; DEA proposes Schedule I Federal detail
9 instruments on file for this compound’s framework in Vermont; 4 of 4 citations above are official sources. Each text carries its source and a fingerprint that changes when the law does.
9dd9e86da1697412(a) As used in this section:
(1) “Glue containing a solvent having the property of releasing toxic vapors or fumes”
means any glue, cement, or other adhesive containing one or more of the following
chemical compounds: acetone, cellulose acetate, benzene, butyl alcohol, ethyl alcohol,
ethylene dichloride, ethylene trichloride, isopropyl alcohol, methyl alcohol, methyl
ethyl ketone, pentachlorophenol, petroleum ether, toluene, or such other similar material
as the Commissioner shall by regulation prescribe.
(2) “Hazardous inhalants” means any of the preparation of compounds containing one or
more of the chemical compounds amyl nitrite, isoamyl nitrite, butyl nitrite, isobutyl
nitrite, pentyl nitrite, or any other akyl nitrite compound that is either designed
to be used, or commonly used, as an inhalant.
(b) No person shall, for the purpose of causing a condition of intoxication, inebriation,
excitement, stupefaction, or the dulling of the brain or nervous system, intentionally
smell or inhale the fumes from any hazardous inhalants or from any glue containing
a solvent having the property of releasing toxic vapors or fumes. Nothing in this
subsection shall be interpreted as applying to the inhalation of any anesthesia or
inhalant for medical or dental purposes.
(c) No person shall, for the purpose of violating subsection (b) of this section, use
or possess for the purpose of using any hazardous inhalants or any glue containing
a solvent having the property of releasing toxic vapors or fumes.
(d) A person who violates this section shall be fined not more than $25.00.
(e) The State’s Attorney may require as a condition of diversion that a person who is
charged with a violation of this section shall attend and complete a substance abuse
program at the person’s own expense. A person who is convicted of violating this section
and who is placed on probation, shall, as a condition of probation, be required to
attend and complete a substance abuse program at the person’s own expense. (Added 1993, No. 150 (Adj. Sess.), § 1.)c6f707ea9b84197e§ 4201. Definitions As used in this chapter: “Professional board” means: (A) in the case of a dentist, the State Board of Dental Examiners so designated under 26 V.S.A. chapter 12; (B) in the case of a physician or surgeon, the State Board of Medical Practice so designated under 26 V.S.A. chapter 23; (C) in the case of an osteopath, the State Board of Osteopathic Examination and Registration so designated under 26 V.S.A. chapter 33; (D) in the case of a nurse, the Vermont State Board of Nursing so designated under 26 V.S.A. chapter 28; (E) in the case of a pharmacist or pharmacy, the State Board of Pharmacy so designated under 26 V.S.A. chapter 36; (F) in the case of a veterinarian, the State Veterinary Board so designated under 26 V.S.A. chapter 44; (G) in the case of a hospital, laboratory, or nursing home, the Commissioner of Health so designated under chapter 3 of this title. (2) [Repealed.] (3) "Board of Pharmacy" means the State Board of Pharmacy so designated under 26 V.S.A. chapter 36. (4) "Certificate" means a certificate of approval issued to a hospital, laboratory, or nursing home under section 4207 of this title. (5) "Dentist" means a person authorized by law to practice dentistry in this State and who has a license issued to the person under this chapter authorizing him or her to use regulated drugs in connection with his or her professional practice. (6) "Depressant or stimulant drug" means: (A) any drug that contains any quantity of barbituric acid or any of the salts of barbituric acid, or any derivative of barbituric acid, that is designated as habit-forming because of its effect on the central nervous system in the rules adopted by the Department of Health under section 4202 of this title; (B) any drug, other than methamphetamine, that contains any quantity of amphetamine or any of its optical isomers, any salt or amphetamine or any salt of an optical isomer of amphetamine, that the Department of Health so designates by such rule as habit-forming because of its effect on the central nervous system; (C) gamma hydroxybutyric acid, including its salts, isomers, or salts of isomers; (D) gamma butyrolactone, including 4-butyrolactone and gamma hydroxybutyric acid lactone, including its salts, isomers, or salts of isomers, when packaged, marketed, manufactured, or intended for human consumption; (E) ketamine, including its salts, isomers, or salts of isomers; (F) flunitrazepam, including its salts, isomers, or salts of isomers; and (G) any drug, other than methamphetamine, that contains any quantity of a substance that the Department of Health so designates by such rule as having a serious potential for abuse arising out of its effect on the central nervous system. (7) “Dispense” includes distribute, leave with, give away, dispose of, or deliver. (8) "Exempt officials" includes officials of the United States, insular possessions, territories, the District of Columbia, state, and political subdivisions. (9) “Federal drug laws” means the laws of the United States relating to one or more of those drugs which are defined in this chapter as regulated drugs. (10) "Hallucinogenic drugs" means stramonium, mescaline or peyote, lysergic acid diethylamide, and psilocybin, and all synthetic equivalents of chemicals contained in resinous extractives of Cannabis sativa, or any salts or derivatives or compounds of any preparations or mixtures thereof, and any other substance that is designated as habit-forming or as having a serious potential for abuse arising out of its effect on the central nervous system or its hallucinogenic effect in the rules adopted by the Department of Health under section 4202 of this title. (11) “Hospital” means an institution for the care and treatment of the sick and injured licensed as a hospital under chapter 43 of this title and a hospital conducted, maintained, and operated by the United States or the State of Vermont, approved under this chapter as proper to be entrusted with the custody and use of regulated drugs under the direction of a physician or dentist, confirmed by an official written order signed by a person authorized to prescribe such drugs. (12) "Laboratory" means a laboratory approved under this chapter as proper to be entrusted with the custody and use of regulated drugs for scientific and medical purposes and for purposes of instruction. (13) “License” means a license to practice their profession issued to one of those persons listed in subdivisions (1)(A) through (F) of this section by the person’s respective professional board under the applicable laws of this State, or a license issued by the Department of Health under section 4206 of this title to a person not subject to the jurisdiction of any such professional board. (14) "Manufacturer" means a person authorized by law to manufacture, bottle, or pack drugs in this State and who has a license issued to the person under this chapter to compound, mix, cultivate, produce, or prepare regulated drugs, but does not include a pharmacy that compounds such drugs to be sold or dispensed on prescriptions at retail. (15)(A) “Cannabis” means all parts of the plant Cannabis sativa L., except as provided by subdivision (B) of this subdivision (15), whether growing or harvested, and includes: (i) the seeds of the plant; (ii) the resin extracted from any part of the plant; and (iii) any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the plant, its seeds, or resin. (B) “Cannabis” does not include: (i) the mature stalks of the plant and fiber produced from the stalks; (ii) oil or cake made from the seeds of the plant; (iii) any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the mature stalks, fiber, oil, or cake; (iv) the sterilized seed of the plant that is incapable of germination; or (v) hemp or hemp products, as defined in 6 V.S.A. § 562. (16) “Narcotic,” “narcotics,” or "narcotic drugs" means opium, coca leaves, pethidine (isonipecaine, meperidine), and opiates or their compound, manufacture, salt, alkaloid, or derivative, and every substance neither chemically nor physically distinguishable from them, and preparations containing such drugs or their derivatives, by whatever trade name identified and whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis, as the same are so designated in the rules adopted by the Department of Health under section 4202 of this title. (17) “Nurse” means any person authorized by law to practice nursing in this State. (18) “Nursing home” means a facility, other than a hospital, operated for the purpose of providing lodging, board, and nursing care to persons who are sick, have an infirmity or disability, or are convalescing, approved under this chapter as proper to be entrusted with the custody and use of regulated drugs prescribed for such individual patients under its care under the direction of a physician or dentist, confirmed by an official written order signed by a person authorized to prescribe such drugs. No nursing home shall be granted a certificate of approval for the possession and use of such drugs unless such nursing home has a registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse on duty or on call 24 hours daily who will have sole responsibility for those drugs. Nothing in this chapter shall be construed as conferring on any nursing home, convalescent home, or home for the aged any authority, right, or privilege beyond that granted to it by the law under which it is licensed or otherwise authorized to function. (19) “Official written order” means an order written on a form prescribed for that purpose by the U.S. Commissioner of Narcotics and issued by the U.S. Commissioner of Internal Revenue, under any laws of the United States making provision therefor, if such order forms are authorized and required by federal law, and if no such order form is provided, then on an official form provided for that purpose by the Commissioner of Health. (20) "Person" includes an individual, partnership, corporation, association, trust, or other institution or entity. (21) “Pharmacist” means any person authorized by law to practice pharmacy in this State; but nothing in this chapter shall be construed as conferring on a person any authority, right, or privilege that is not granted to him or her by the pharmacy laws of his or her state. (22) “Pharmacy” means any place registered as such by the Board of Pharmacy in which drugs, prescriptions, or poisons are possessed for the purpose of compounding, dispensing, or retailing, or in which drugs, prescriptions, or poisons are compounded, dispensed, or retailed, or in which such drugs, prescriptions, or poisons are by advertising or otherwise offered for sale at retail and which has a license issued to it under this chapter authorizing the retail dealing of regulated drugs. (23) “Physician” means a person authorized by law to practice medicine in this State and who has a license issued to the person under this chapter authorizing him or her to use regulated drugs in connection with his or her professional practice. (24) “Practitioner” includes a physician, dentist, veterinarian, surgeon, or any other person who may be lawfully entitled under this chapter to distribute, dispense, prescribe, or administer regulated drugs to patients. (25) "Prescribe" means an order for a patient made or given by a practitioner. (26) "Prescription" means an order for a regulated drug made by a physician, physician assistant, advanced practice registered nurse, dentist, or veterinarian licensed under this chapter to prescribe such a drug which shall be in writing except as otherwise specified in this subdivision. Prescriptions for such drugs shall be made to the order of an individual patient, dated as of the day of issue and signed by the prescriber. The prescription shall bear the full name, address, and date of birth of the patient, or if the patient is an animal, the name and address of the owner of the animal and the species of the animal. Such prescription shall also bear the full name, address, and registry number of the prescriber and, unless electronically prescribed, shall be written with ink, indelible pencil, or typewriter; if typewritten, it shall be signed by the prescriber. A written or typewritten prescription for a controlled substance, as defined in 21 C.F.R. Part 1308, shall contain the quantity of the drug written both in numeric and word form. If a prescription is communicated orally, it shall be reduced promptly to writing by the pharmacist. Nothing in this subdivision is meant to authorize the oral communication of a prescription when a written prescription is otherwise required. (27) "Registration" means the annual registration of licenses and certificates under this chapter. (28) "Registry number" means the number assigned under rules adopted by the Department of Health to each person authorized under this chapter to use, prescribe, dispense, possess, or administer a regulated drug in connection with his or her professional practice. (29) "Regulated drug" means: (A) a narcotic drug; (B) a depressant or stimulant drug, other than methamphetamine; (C) a hallucinogenic drug; (D) Ecstasy; (E) cannabis; (F) methamphetamine; or (G) xylazine. (30) "Sale" means transfer for a consideration or barter or exchange or an offer or express or implied promise to transfer for a consideration or barter or exchange, and each such transaction made by any person, whether as principal, proprietor, agent, servant, or employee. (31) "Veterinarian" means a person authorized by law to practice veterinary medicine in this State and who has a license issued to the person under this chapter authorizing him or her to use regulated drugs in connection with his or her professional practice. (32) "Veterinary hospital" means an institution equipped with the technical facilities and professional and technical personnel necessary for diagnosis and treatment of animals suffering from sickness or injury and which hospital is further approved under this chapter as proper to be entrusted with the custody and use of regulated drugs which may be used only by veterinarians in their professional practice at that hospital. (33) "Wholesaler" means a person authorized by law, when so required, to sell at wholesale drugs in this State and further has a license issued to the person under this chapter to supply others than consumers with drugs or preparations containing a regulated drug that the person has not produced or prepared. (34) "Deliver" means the actual, constructive, or attempted transfer or prescription of a regulated drug, whether or not there exists an agency relationship. (35) "Cocaine" means coca leaves except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which cocaine, ecgonine, and derivatives of ecgonine or their salts have been removed; cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers; ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers; or any compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in this subdivision. (36) “Heroin” includes every substance not chemically or physically distinguishable from it and preparations containing heroin or its derivatives, by whatever name identified and whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis, as designated by the Department of Health by rule. (37) “Lysergic acid diethylamide” includes any salts or derivatives or compounds of any preparations or mixtures of lysergic acid diethylamide or any preparation, mixture, or compound containing any lysergic acid diethylamide. (38) "Ecstasy" means 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine, including its salts, isomers, or salts of isomers. (39) “Methamphetamine” includes any quantity of the substance, its salt, isomers, salts of isomers, optical isomers, and salts of its optical isomers. (40) [Repealed.] (41) "Prescription drug" means any human drug required by federal law or regulation to be dispensed only by a prescription, including finished dosage forms and active ingredients subject to Section 503(b) of the federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act. (42) "Ultimate user" means a patient who uses a prescription drug. (43) "Immature cannabis plant" means a female cannabis plant that has not flowered and that does not have buds that may be observed by visual examination. (44) “Mature cannabis plant” means a female cannabis plant that has flowered and that has buds that may be observed by visual examination. (45) "Approved drug-checking service provider" means a provider who complies with operating guidelines developed by the Department of Health pursuant to section 4240a of this title. (46) “Benchmark unlawful dosage” means the maximum recommended therapeutic dose, or maximum daily dose, as determined by the Department by rule. (47) "Drug-checking" means the testing of a substance to determine its chemical composition or assist in determining whether the substance contains contaminants, toxic substances, or hazardous compounds. (48) "Fentanyl" means any quantity of fentanyl, including any compound, mixture, or preparation including salts, isomers, or salts of isomers containing fentanyl. "Fentanyl" also means fentanyl-related substances as defined in rules adopted by the Department of Health pursuant to section 4202 of this title. (49) "Xylazine" means any compound, mixture, or preparation including salts, isomers, or salts of isomers containing N-(2,6- dimethylphenyl)-5,6-dihydro-4H-1,3-thiazin-2-amine. (Added 1967, No. 343 (Adj. Sess.)
a81fc7646f8376c87.0 Hallucinogenic Drugs; Synthetic Cannabinoids; Tryptamines; Cannabinimimetics;
Mescaline Analogs; Dissociatives; Trade or Chemical Name
• 1-(1-Phenylcyclohexyl)pyrrolidine; PCPy; Rolicyclidine
• 1-[1-(2-Thienyl)cyclohexyl]piperidine; TCP; Tenocyclidine
• 1-[1-(2-Thienyl)cyclohexyl]pyrrolidine; TCPy
• 1-Piperidinocyclohexanecarbonitrile; PCC
• 2-Fluorodeschloroketamine; 2-Fl-2'-Oxo-PCM; Fluoroketamine; 2-FDCK
• 2-Trifluoromethyldeschloroketamine; 2-TFMDCK; TFM-K
• 5F-APICA; N-(adamantan-1-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamide
• 5F-PCN; 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-N-(naphthalen-1-yl)-1H-pyrrolo[3,2-c]pyridine-3-
carboxamide
Effective Date:7/15/2017
Page 17 of 33
• AB-FUBINACA; N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-
indazole-3-carboxamide
• AB-FUBINACA; 2-fluorobenzyl isomer
• ADB-CHMINACA
• ADB-PINACA; N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-
carboxamide
• bromo-dragonfly; 1-(4-bromofuro[2,3-f]benzofuran-8-yl)propan-2-amine
• CUMYL- BICA
• CUMYL-5F-PICA
• CUMYL-5F-PINACA
• CUMYL-PICA
• CUMYL-PINACA
• CUMYL-THPINACA
• delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol
• FUB-AMB
• MAB-CHMINACA; N-(1-amino-3,3dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-
1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
• Nabilone
• NM-2201
• Parahexyl
• PX-1
• PX-2
Effective Date:7/15/2017
Page 18 of 33
• N-Ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate
• 1-(4-methoxybenzoyl)-4-methylpiperazine;MEXP;Methoxypiperamide
• 2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine; 2,5-dimethoxy-a-methylphenethylamin 2,5 DMA
• 2-MeO-ketamine; methoxyketamine
• 2C-B; 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-benzeneethanamine, monohydrochloride
• 2C-C; 2-(4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine
• 2C-D; 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-methylphenyl)ethanamine
• 2C-E; 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-ethylphenyl)ethanamine
• 2C-H; 2-(2,5-Dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine
• 2C-I; 2-(4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine
• 2C-N; 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-nitro-phenyl)ethanamine
• 2C-P; 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylphenyl)ethanamine
• 2C-T-2; 2-[4-(Ethylthio)-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl]ethanamine
• 2C-T-4; 2-[4-(Isopropylthio)-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl]ethanamine
• 2C-T-7; 2,5-dimethoxy-4-(propylthio)-benzeneethanamine, monohydrochloride
• 2C-TFM-NBOMe; 2-(4-trifluoromethyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-[(2-
methoxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine
• 2CBCB-NBOMe; N-(2-methoxybenzyl)-1-[(7R)-3-bromo-2,5-
dimethoxybicyclo[4.2.0]octa- 1,3,5-trien-7-yl]methanamine
• 2CBFly-NBOMe; N-(2-Methoxybenzyl)-1-(8-bromo-2,3,6,7-tetrahydrobenzo[1,2-b:4,5-
b’]difuran-4-yl)-2-aminoethane
• 3,4,5-trimethoxy amphetamine
• 3,4-methylenedioxy amphetamine
Effective Date:7/15/2017
Page 19 of 33
• 3-HO-PCE; 3-[1-(ethylamino)cyclohexyl]phenol
• 3-HO-PCP
• 3-Methoxyphencyclidine; 3-MeO-PCP; 1-[1-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexyl]-piperidine
• 4-AcO-DET; 3-(2-Diethylaminoethyl)-1H-indol-4-yl acetate
• 4-AcO-DMT; 3-[2-(Dimethylamino)ethyl]-1H-indol-4-yl acetate
• 4-AcO-DPT
• 4-AcO-MET; 3-(2-Ethyl(methyl)aminoethyl)-1H-indol-4-yl acetate
• 4-bromo-2, 5-dimethoxyamphetamine; DOB; bromo-DMA
• 4-HO-MET; 3-(2-(ethyl(methyl)amino)ethyl)-1H-indol-4-ol
• 4-HO-MIPT; 3-(2-[Isopropyl(methyl)amino]ethyl)-1H-indol-4-ol; 4-hydroxy-MIPT
• 4-HO-MPMI; (R)-3-(N-methylpyrrolidin-2-ylmethyl)-4-hydoxyindole
• 4-HO-MPT; 3-{2-[methyl(propyl)amino]ethyl}-1H-indol-4-ol
• 4-MeO-AET
• 4-MeO-MIPT
• 4-MeO-PCP; 1-[1-(4-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexyl]-piperidine; 4-Methoxyphencyclidine
(methoxydine)
• 4-methoxyamphetamine; 4-methoxy-a-methylphenethylamine paramethoxyamphetamine:
PMA
• 4-methyl-2, 5-dimethoxyamphetamine; 4-methyl-2, 5-dimethoxy-a-ethylphenethylamine;
“DOM”; and “STP.”
• 4-methyl-AET
• 5-APB; 5-(2-aminopropyl)benzofuran
• 5-EAPB; 5-(2-Ethylaminopropyl)Benzofuran
Effective Date:7/15/2017
Page 20 of 33
• 5F-AMB; 5-fluoro AMP
• 5F-ADBICA; 5-fluoro ADBICA; N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(5-
fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamide
• 5F-AKB48; AKB48 N-(5-fluoropentyl) analog; 5f-APINACA; APINACA 5-fluoropentyl
analog; N-((3s,5s,7s)-adamantan-1-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
• 5F-MN-018;5-fluoro MN-18; N-1-naphthalenyl-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
• 5F-MN24; 5-fluoro NNEI; 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-N-(naphthalen-1-yl)-1H-indole-3-
carboxamide
• 5F-SDB-005; naphthalen-1-yl 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxylate
• 5F-THJ-2201; (1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazol-3-yl)(naphthalen-1-yl)methanone
• 5FAB-FUBINACA
• 5FAB-PINACA; AB-PINACA 5 fluoro analog; (S)-N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-
yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
• 5FPB22; 5-fluoro PB-22; 5-fluoro QUPIC; 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-8-quinolinyl ester-1H-
indole-3-carboxylic acid
• 5FSDB-006; 5-fluoro SDB-006; N-benzyl-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamide
• 5-IT; 5-(2-aminopropyl)indole
• 5-MAPB; 5-(2-Methylaminopropyl) Benzofuran
• 5-MeO-AMT; 1-(5-methoxy-1H-indol-3-yl)propan-2-amine
• 5-MeO-DALT; N-ally1-N-[2-(5-methoxy-1H-indol-3-yl)ethyl]prop-2-en-1-amine; 5-
MED
• 5-MeO-DET; N,N-Dethyl-5-Methoxytryptamine
• 5-MeO-DIPT; 3-[2-(Diisopropylamino)ethyl]-5-methoxyindole
• 5-MeO-DMT; 2-(5-methoxy-1H-indol-3-yl)-N,N-dimethylethanamine
• 5-MeO-DPT; N-[2-(5-methoxy-1H-indol-3-yl)ethyl]-N-propylpropan-1-amine
Effective Date:7/15/2017
Page 21 of 33
• 5-MeO-MDA; 5-methoxy-3, 4-methylenedioxy amphetamine
• 5-MeO-MIPT; N-[2-(5-methoxy-1H-indol-3-yl)ethyl]-N-methylpropan-2-amine
• 5-methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxy amphetamine
• 5-MeO-MPMI; (R)-3-(N-methylpyrrolidin-2-ylmethyl)-5-methoxyindole
• 5F-UR-144; (5-fluoropentylindol-3-yl)-(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone;
XLR11
• 6-APB; 6-(2-aminopropyl)benzofuran
• 7-hydroxymitragynine; (αE,2S,3S,7aS,12bS)-3-Ethyl-1,2,3,4,6,7,7a,12b-octahydro-7a-
hydroxy-8-methoxy-α-(methoxymethylene)indolo[2,3-a]quinolizine-2-acetic acid methyl
ester
• 25B-NBOMe; NBOMe-2C-B; BOM 2-CB; Cimbi-36; 2-(4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-
N- [(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine
• 25C-NBOMe ; 2C-C-NBOMe; NBOMe-2C-C; Cimbi-82; 2-(4-chloro-2,5-
dimethoxyphenyl)-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine
• 25I-NBF; 2-(4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-[(2-fluorophenyl)methyl]ethanamine
• 25I-NBMD; NBMD-2C-I; Cimbi-29; 2-(4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-[(2,3-
methylenedioxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine
• 25I-NBOH; 2-((2-(4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethylamino)methyl)phenol
• 25I-NBOMe; 2-(4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine
• A1 dodeca-2E, 4E, 8Z, 10Z – tetraenoic acid isobutyl amide
• A2 dodeca-2E, 4E, dienoic acid idobutylamide
• A796,260; 1-(2-morpholin-4-ylethyl)-1H-indol-3-yl]-(2,2,3,3 tetramethylcyclopropyl)
methanone
• A-834,735; 1-(tetrahydropyran-4-ylmethyl)-1H-indol-3-yl]-(2,2,3,3-
tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone
Effective Date:7/15/2017
Page 22 of 33
• A-836,339; N-[3-(2-methoxyethyl)-4,5-dimethyl-1,3-thiazol-2-ylidene]-2,2,3,3-
tetramethylcyclopropane-1-carboxamide
• AB-001; 1-pentyl-3-(1-adamantoyl) indole
• AB-034; [1-[(N-methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl]-1H-indole-3-yl]-(2,2,3,3-
tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone
• AB-CHMINACA; N-[(1S)-1-(aminocarbonyl)-2-methylpropyl]-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-
1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
• AB-PINACA
• ACEA; N-(2-chloroethyl)-5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z-eicosatetraenamide
• ACPA; N-cyclopropyl-5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z-eicosatetraenamide
• ADBICA; N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-pentyl-1H-indole-3-carboxamide
• AH-7921; 3,4-dichloro-N-[(1dimethylamino)cyclohexylmethyl]benzamide
• AKB-48; N-adamantyl-1-pentylindazole-3-carboxamide (APINACA)
• AL-LAD; 6-allyl-6-nor-LSD; 6-Allyl-6-nor-lysergic acid diethylamide
• AM630; Iodopravadoline; [6-iodo-2-methyl-1-[2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl]-1H-indol-3-yl](4-
methoxyphenyl)-methanone
• AM-679; 1-pentyl-3-(2-iodobenzoyl)indole
• AM-694; 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(2-iodobenzoyl)indole; OR 1-[(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indol-3-
yl]-(2-iodophenyl)methanone
• AM-1220; (R)-(1-((1-methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl)-1H-indol-3-yl)(naphthalen-1-
yl)methanone; OR 1-((N-methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl)-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole; OR 1- [(N-
methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl]-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole
• AM-1241; 1-(methylpiperidin-2-ylmethyl)-3-(2-iodo-5-nitrobenzoyl)indole
• AM-1248; 1-[(N-methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl]-3-(adamant-1-oyl)indole
• AM-2201; 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole
Effective Date:7/15/2017
Page 23 of 33
• AM-2233; 1-[(N-methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl]-3-(2-iodobenzoyl)indole
• AM-4113
• AMT; a-methyltryptamine
• ASDB-FUB-187 BAY 38-7271; (-)-(R)-3-(2-Hydroxymethylindanyl-4-oxy)phenyl-4,4,4-
trifluorobutyl-1- sulfonate
• Bufotenine; 3-(b-dimethylaminoethyl) 5-hydroxyindole; 3-(2-di-methylamineothyl) -5-
indolol;N, N-dimethylserotonin; 5-hydroxy-N-dimethyltryptamine; mappine.
• CB-13, SAB-378; Naphthalen-1-yl-(4-pentyloxynaphthalen-1-yl)methanone
• CP47,497
• CP 47,497 homologues; Known as the C6, C7, C8 or C9 homologues and also the
dimethylhexyl, dimethylheptyl; dimethyloctyl or dimethylnonyl homologues
• CP 50,556-1, Levonantradol; 9-hydroxy-6-methyl-3-[5-phenylpentan-2-yl]oxy-
5,6,6a,7,8,9,10,10a-octahydrophenanthridin-1-yl]acetate; OR [(6S,6aR,9R, 10aR)-9-
hydroxy-6-methyl-3-[(2R)-5-ph enylpentan-2-yl]oxy-5,6,6a,7,8,9,10,10a-
octahydrophenanthridin-1-yl] acetate; OR [9-hydroxy-6-methyl-3-[5-phenylpentan-2-
yl]oxy-5,6,6a,7,8,9,10, 10a-octahydrophenanthridin-1-yl]acetate
• CP 55,940; 2-[(1R,2R,5R)-5-hydroxy-2-(3-hydroxypropyl) cyclohexyl]-5-(2-
methyloctan-2-yl)phenol
• cannabicyclohexanol
• Cannabimimetic Agents means, collectively, any chemical that is a cannabinoid receptor
type 1 (CB1) or cannabinoid receptor type 2 (CB2) agonist, or any salts, isomers,
derivatives, or analogs of these chemicals. Structural classes include but are not limited
to: (a) 2-(3-hydroxycyclohexyl)phenol with substitution at the 5-position of the phenolic
ring by alkyl or alkenyl, whether or not substituted on the cyclohexyl ring to any extent.
(b) 3-(1-naphthoyl)indole or 3-(1-naphthyl)indole with substitution at the nitrogen atom of
the indole ring, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent, whether
or not substituted on the naphthoyl or naphthyl ring to any extent. (c) 3-(1-
naphthoyl)pyrrole with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the pyrrole ring, whether or
not further substituted in the pyrrole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the
naphthoyl ring to any extent. (d) 1-(1-naphthylmethyl)indene with substitution of the 3-
position of the indene ring, whether or not further substituted in the indene ring to any
extent, whether or not substituted on the naphthyl ring to any extent.(e) 3-
phenylacetylindole or 3-benzoylindole with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole
Effective Date:7/15/2017
Page 24 of 33
ring, whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any extent, whether or not
substituted on the phenyl ring to any extent. (f) indole- (2,2,3,3-
tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone, with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole
ring, whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any extent, whether or not
substituted on the phenyl ring to any extent. (g) N- adamantyl-indole-3-carboxamide,
with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring, whether or not further substituted
in the indole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the phenyl ring to any
extent. (h) (1,3-thiazol-2- ylidine)-2,2,3,3- tetramethylcyclopropane-1-carboxamide, with
substitution to any extent at any position of the thiazolylidine ring.
• DET; Diethyltryptamine; N, N-Diethyltryptamine
• DIPT; Diisopropyltryptamine
• DMT; Dimethyltryptamine9e2abd843dbe6436(6) "Depressant or stimulant drug" means:
(A) any drug that contains any quantity of barbituric acid or any of the salts of barbituric
acid, or any derivative of barbituric acid, that is designated as habit-forming because
of its effect on the central nervous system in the rules adopted by the Department
of Health under section 4202 of this title;
(B) any drug, other than methamphetamine, that contains any quantity of amphetamine or
any of its optical isomers, any salt or amphetamine or any salt of an optical isomer
of amphetamine, that the Department of Health so designates by such rule as habit-forming
because of its effect on the central nervous system;
(C) gamma hydroxybutyric acid, including its salts, isomers, or salts of isomers;
(D) gamma butyrolactone, including 4-butyrolactone and gamma hydroxybutyric acid lactone,
including its salts, isomers, or salts of isomers, when packaged, marketed, manufactured,
or intended for human consumption;
(E) ketamine, including its salts, isomers, or salts of isomers;
(F) flunitrazepam, including its salts, isomers, or salts of isomers; and
(G) any drug, other than methamphetamine, that contains any quantity of a substance that
the Department of Health so designates by such rule as having a serious potential
for abuse arising out of its effect on the central nervous system.
(7) “Dispense” includes distribute, leave with, give away, dispose of, or deliver.
(8) "Exempt officials" includes officials of the United States, insular possessions, territories,
the District of Columbia, state, and political subdivisions.
(9) “Federal drug laws” means the laws of the United States relating to one or more of
those drugs which are defined in this chapter as regulated drugs.
(10) "Hallucinogenic drugs" means stramonium, mescaline or peyote, lysergic acid diethylamide,
and psilocybin, and all synthetic equivalents of chemicals contained in resinous extractives
of Cannabis sativa, or any salts or derivatives or compounds of any preparations or
mixtures thereof, and any other substance that is designated as habit-forming or as
having a serious potential for abuse arising out of its effect on the central nervous
system or its hallucinogenic effect in the rules adopted by the Department of Health
under section 4202 of this title.
(11) “Hospital” means an institution for the care and treatment of the sick and injured
licensed as a hospital under chapter 43 of this title and a hospital conducted, maintained,
and operated by the United States or the State of Vermont, approved under this chapter
as proper to be entrusted with the custody and use of regulated drugs under the direction
of a physician or dentist, confirmed by an official written order signed by a person
authorized to prescribe such drugs.
(12) "Laboratory" means a laboratory approved under this chapter as proper to be entrusted
with the custody and use of regulated drugs for scientific and medical purposes and
for purposes of instruction.
(13) “License” means a license to practice their profession issued to one of those persons
listed in subdivisions (1)(A) through (F) of this section by the person’s respective
professional board under the applicable laws of this State, or a license issued by
the Department of Health under section 4206 of this title to a person not subject to the jurisdiction of any such professional board.
(14) "Manufacturer" means a person authorized by law to manufacture, bottle, or pack drugs
in this State and who has a license issued to the person under this chapter to compound,
mix, cultivate, produce, or prepare regulated drugs, but does not include a pharmacy
that compounds such drugs to be sold or dispensed on prescriptions at retail.
(15)(A) “Cannabis” means all parts of the plant Cannabis sativa L., except as provided by
subdivision (B) of this subdivision (15), whether growing or harvested, and includes:
(i) the seeds of the plant;
(ii) the resin extracted from any part of the plant; and
(iii) any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the plant,
its seeds, or resin.
(B) “Cannabis” does not include:
(i) the mature stalks of the plant and fiber produced from the stalks;
(ii) oil or cake made from the seeds of the plant;
(iii) any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the mature
stalks, fiber, oil, or cake;
(iv) the sterilized seed of the plant that is incapable of germination; or
(v) hemp or hemp products, as defined in 7 V.S.A. § 852.
(16) “Narcotic,” “narcotics,” or "narcotic drugs" means opium, coca leaves, pethidine (isonipecaine,
meperidine), and opiates or their compound, manufacture, salt, alkaloid, or derivative,
and every substance neither chemically nor physically distinguishable from them, and
preparations containing such drugs or their derivatives, by whatever trade name identified
and whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable
origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis or by a combination of extraction
and chemical synthesis, as the same are so designated in the rules adopted by the
Department of Health under section 4202 of this title.
(17) “Nurse” means any person authorized by law to practice nursing in this State.
(18) “Nursing home” means a facility, other than a hospital, operated for the purpose of
providing lodging, board, and nursing care to persons who are sick, have an infirmity
or disability, or are convalescing, approved under this chapter as proper to be entrusted
with the custody and use of regulated drugs prescribed for such individual patients
under its care under the direction of a physician or dentist, confirmed by an official
written order signed by a person authorized to prescribe such drugs. No nursing home
shall be granted a certificate of approval for the possession and use of such drugs
unless such nursing home has a registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse on duty
or on call 24 hours daily who will have sole responsibility for those drugs. Nothing
in this chapter shall be construed as conferring on any nursing home, convalescent
home, or home for the aged any authority, right, or privilege beyond that granted
to it by the law under which it is licensed or otherwise authorized to function.
(19) “Official written order” means an order written on a form prescribed for that purpose
by the U.S. Commissioner of Narcotics and issued by the U.S. Commissioner of Internal
Revenue, under any laws of the United States making provision therefor, if such order
forms are authorized and required by federal law, and if no such order form is provided,
then on an official form provided for that purpose by the Commissioner of Health.
(20) "Person" includes an individual, partnership, corporation, association, trust, or
other institution or entity.
(21) “Pharmacist” means any person authorized by law to practice pharmacy in this State;
but nothing in this chapter shall be construed as conferring on a person any authority,
right, or privilege that is not granted to him or her by the pharmacy laws of his
or her state.
(22) “Pharmacy” means any place registered as such by the Board of Pharmacy in which drugs,
prescriptions, or poisons are possessed for the purpose of compounding, dispensing,
or retailing, or in which drugs, prescriptions, or poisons are compounded, dispensed,
or retailed, or in which such drugs, prescriptions, or poisons are by advertising
or otherwise offered for sale at retail and which has a license issued to it under
this chapter authorizing the retail dealing of regulated drugs.
(23) “Physician” means a person authorized by law to practice medicine in this State and
who has a license issued to the person under this chapter authorizing him or her to
use regulated drugs in connection with his or her professional practice.
(24) “Practitioner” includes a physician, dentist, veterinarian, surgeon, or any other
person who may be lawfully entitled under this chapter to distribute, dispense, prescribe,
or administer regulated drugs to patients.
(25) "Prescribe" means an order for a patient made or given by a practitioner.
(26) "Prescription" means an order for a regulated drug made by a physician, physician
assistant, advanced practice registered nurse, dentist, or veterinarian licensed under
this chapter to prescribe such a drug which shall be in writing except as otherwise
specified in this subdivision. Prescriptions for such drugs shall be made to the order
of an individual patient, dated as of the day of issue and signed by the prescriber.
The prescription shall bear the full name, address, and date of birth of the patient,
or if the patient is an animal, the name and address of the owner of the animal and
the species of the animal. Such prescription shall also bear the full name, address,
and registry number of the prescriber and, unless electronically prescribed, shall
be written with ink, indelible pencil, or typewriter; if typewritten, it shall be
signed by the prescriber. A written or typewritten prescription for a controlled substance,
as defined in 21 C.F.R. Part 1308, shall contain the quantity of the drug written both in numeric and word form. If
a prescription is communicated orally, it shall be reduced promptly to writing by
the pharmacist. Nothing in this subdivision is meant to authorize the oral communication
of a prescription when a written prescription is otherwise required.
(27) "Registration" means the annual registration of licenses and certificates under this
chapter.
(28) "Registry number" means the number assigned under rules adopted by the Department
of Health to each person authorized under this chapter to use, prescribe, dispense,
possess, or administer a regulated drug in connection with his or her professional
practice.
(29) "Regulated drug" means:
(A) a narcotic drug;
(B) a depressant or stimulant drug, other than methamphetamine;
(C) a hallucinogenic drug;
(D) Ecstasy;
(E) cannabis;
(F) methamphetamine; or
(G) xylazine.444edde14dc931177.0 Hallucinogenic Drugs; Synthetic Cannabinoids; Tryptamines; Cannabinimimetics;
Mescaline Analogs; Dissociatives; Trade or Chemical Name
• 1-(1-Phenylcyclohexyl)pyrrolidine; PCPy; Rolicyclidine
• 1-[1-(2-Thienyl)cyclohexyl]piperidine; TCP; Tenocyclidine
• 1-[1-(2-Thienyl)cyclohexyl]pyrrolidine; TCPy
• 1-Piperidinocyclohexanecarbonitrile; PCC
• 2-Fluorodeschloroketamine; 2-Fl-2'-Oxo-PCM; Fluoroketamine; 2-FDCK
• 2-Trifluoromethyldeschloroketamine; 2-TFMDCK; TFM-K
• 5F-APICA; N-(adamantan-1-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamide
• 5F-PCN; 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-N-(naphthalen-1-yl)-1H-pyrrolo[3,2-c]pyridine-3-
carboxamide
Page 17 of 33
Effective Date:7/15/2017
• AB-FUBINACA; N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-
indazole-3-carboxamide
• AB FUBINACA; 2-fluorobenzyl isomer
• ADB-CHMINACA
• ADB-PINACA; N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-
carboxamide
• bromo-dragonfly; 1-(4-bromofuro[2,3-f]benzofuran-8-yl)propan-2-amine
• CUMYL BICA
• CUMYL-5F-PICA
• CUMYL-5F-PINACA
• CUMYL-PICA
• CUMYL-PINACA
• CUMYL-THPINACA
• delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol
• FUB-AMB
• MAB-CHMINACA; N-(1-amino-3,3dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-
1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
• Nabilone
• NM-2201
• Parahexyl
• PX-1
• PX-2
Page 18 of 33
Effective Date:7/15/2017
• N-Ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate
• 1-(4-methoxybenzoyl)-4-methylpiperazine;MEXP;Methoxypiperamide
• 2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine; 2,5-dimethoxy-a-methylphenethylamin 2,5 DMA
• 2-MeO-ketamine; methoxyketamine
• 2C-B; 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-benzeneethanamine, monohydrochloride
• 2C-C; 2-(4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine
• 2C-D; 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-methylphenyl)ethanamine
• 2C-E; 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-ethylphenyl)ethanamine
• 2C-H; 2-(2,5-Dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine
• 2C-I; 2-(4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine
• 2C-N; 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-nitro-phenyl)ethanamine
• 2C-P; 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylphenyl)ethanamine
• 2C-T-2; 2-[4-(Ethylthio)-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl]ethanamine
• 2C-T-4; 2-[4-(Isopropylthio)-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl]ethanamine
• 2C-T-7; 2,5-dimethoxy-4-(propylthio)-benzeneethanamine, monohydrochloride
• 2C-TFM-NBOMe; 2-(4-trifluoromethyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-[(2-
methoxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine
• 2CBCB-NBOMe; N-(2-methoxybenzyl)-1-[(7R)-3-bromo-2,5-
dimethoxybicyclo[4.2.0]octa- 1,3,5-trien-7-yl]methanamine
• 2CBFly-NBOMe; N-(2-Methoxybenzyl)-1-(8-bromo-2,3,6,7-tetrahydrobenzo[1,2-b:4,5-
b’]difuran-4-yl)-2-aminoethane
• 3,4,5-trimethoxy amphetamine
• 3,4-methylenedioxy amphetamine
Page 19 of 33
Effective Date:7/15/2017
• 3-HO-PCE; 3-[1-(ethylamino)cyclohexyl]phenol
• 3-HO-PCP
• 3-Methoxyphencyclidine; 3-MeO-PCP; 1-[1-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexyl]-piperidine
• 4-AcO-DET; 3-(2-Diethylaminoethyl)-1H-indol-4-yl acetate
• 4-AcO-DMT; 3-[2-(Dimethylamino)ethyl]-1H-indol-4-yl acetate
• 4-AcO-DPT
• 4-AcO-MET; 3-(2-Ethyl(methyl)aminoethyl)-1H-indol-4-yl acetate
• 4-bromo-2, 5-dimethoxyamphetamine; DOB; bromo-DMA
• 4-HO-MET; 3-(2-(ethyl(methyl)amino)ethyl)-1H-indol-4-ol
• 4-HO-MIPT; 3-(2-[Isopropyl(methyl)amino]ethyl)-1H-indol-4-ol; 4-hydroxy-MIPT
• 4-HO-MPMI; (R)-3-(N-methylpyrrolidin-2-ylmethyl)-4-hydoxyindole
• 4-HO-MPT; 3-{2-[methyl(propyl)amino]ethyl}-1H-indol-4-ol
• 4-MeO-AET
• 4-MeO-MIPT
• 4-MeO-PCP; 1-[1-(4-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexyl]-piperidine; 4-Methoxyphencyclidine
(methoxydine)
• 4-methoxyamphetamine; 4-methoxy-a-methylphenethylamine paramethoxyamphetamine:
PMA
• 4-methyl-2, 5-dimethoxyamphetamine; 4-methyl-2, 5-dimethoxy-a-ethylphenethylamine;
“DOM”; and “STP.”
• 4-methyl-AET
• 5-APB; 5-(2-aminopropyl)benzofuran
• 5-EAPB; 5-(2-Ethylaminopropyl)Benzofuran
Page 20 of 33
Effective Date:7/15/2017
• 5F-AMB; 5-fluoro AMP
• 5F-ADBICA; 5-fluoro ADBICA; N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(5-
fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamide
• 5F-AKB48; AKB48 N-(5-fluoropentyl) analog; 5f-APINACA; APINACA 5-fluoropentyl
analog; N-((3s,5s,7s)-adamantan-1-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
• 5F-MN-018;5-fluoro MN-18; N-1-naphthalenyl-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
• 5F-MN24; 5-fluoro NNEI; 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-N-(naphthalen-1-yl)-1H-indole-3-
carboxamide
• 5F-SDB-005; naphthalen-1-yl 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxylate
• 5F-THJ-2201; (1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazol-3-yl)(naphthalen-1-yl)methanone
• 5FAB-FUBINACA
• 5FAB-PINACA; AB-PINACA 5 fluoro analog; (S)-N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-
yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
• 5FPB22; 5-fluoro PB-22; 5-fluoro QUPIC; 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-8-quinolinyl ester-1H-
indole-3-carboxylic acid
• 5FSDB-006; 5-fluoro SDB-006; N-benzyl-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamide
• 5-IT; 5-(2-aminopropyl)indole
• 5-MAPB; 5-(2-Methylaminopropyl) Benzofuran
• 5-MeO-AMT; 1-(5-methoxy-1H-indol-3-yl)propan-2-amine
• 5-MeO-DALT; N-ally1-N-[2-(5-methoxy-1H-indol-3-yl)ethyl]prop-2-en-1-amine; 5-
MED
• 5-MeO-DET; N,N-Dethyl-5-Methoxytryptamine
• 5-MeO-DIPT; 3-[2-(Diisopropylamino)ethyl]-5-methoxyindole
• 5-MeO-DMT; 2-(5-methoxy-1H-indol-3-yl)-N,N-dimethylethanamine
• 5-MeO-DPT; N-[2-(5-methoxy-1H-indol-3-yl)ethyl]-N-propylpropan-1-amine
Page 21 of 33
Effective Date:7/15/2017
• 5-MeO-MDA; 5-methoxy-3, 4-methylenedioxy amphetamine
• 5-MeO-MIPT; N-[2-(5-methoxy-1H-indol-3-yl)ethyl]-N-methylpropan-2-amine
• 5-methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxy amphetamine
• 5-MeO-MPMI; (R)-3-(N-methylpyrrolidin-2-ylmethyl)-5-methoxyindole
• 5F-UR-144; (5-fluoropentylindol-3-yl)-(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone;
XLR11
• 6-APB; 6-(2-aminopropyl)benzofuran
• 7-hydroxymitragynine; (αE,2S,3S,7aS,12bS)-3-Ethyl-1,2,3,4,6,7,7a,12b-octahydro-7a-
hydroxy-8-methoxy-α-(methoxymethylene)indolo[2,3-a]quinolizine-2-acetic acid methyl
ester
• 25B-NBOMe; NBOMe-2C-B; BOM 2-CB; Cimbi-36; 2-(4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-
N- [(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine
• 25C-NBOMe ; 2C-C-NBOMe; NBOMe-2C-C; Cimbi-82; 2-(4-chloro-2,5-
dimethoxyphenyl)-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine
• 25I-NBF; 2-(4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-[(2-fluorophenyl)methyl]ethanamine
• 25I-NBMD; NBMD-2C-I; Cimbi-29; 2-(4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-[(2,3-
methylenedioxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine
• 25I-NBOH; 2-((2-(4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethylamino)methyl)phenol
• 25I-NBOMe; 2-(4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine
• A1 dodeca-2E, 4E, 8Z, 10Z – tetraenoic acid isobutyl amide
• A2 dodeca-2E, 4E, dienoic acid idobutylamide
• A796,260; 1-(2-morpholin-4-ylethyl)-1H-indol-3-yl]-(2,2,3,3 tetramethylcyclopropyl)
methanone
• A-834,735; 1-(tetrahydropyran-4-ylmethyl)-1H-indol-3-yl]-(2,2,3,3-
tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone
Page 22 of 33
Effective Date:7/15/2017
• A-836,339; N-[3-(2-methoxyethyl)-4,5-dimethyl-1,3-thiazol-2-ylidene]-2,2,3,3-
tetramethylcyclopropane-1-carboxamide
• AB-001; 1-pentyl-3-(1-adamantoyl) indole
• AB-034; [1-[(N-methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl]-1H-indole-3-yl]-(2,2,3,3-
tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone
• AB-CHMINACA; N-[(1S)-1-(aminocarbonyl)-2-methylpropyl]-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-
1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
• AB-PINACA
• ACEA; N-(2-chloroethyl)-5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z-eicosatetraenamide
• ACPA; N-cyclopropyl-5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z-eicosatetraenamide
• ADBICA; N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-pentyl-1H-indole-3-carboxamide
• AH-7921; 3,4-dichloro-N-[(1dimethylamino)cyclohexylmethyl]benzamide
• AKB-48; N-adamantyl-1-pentylindazole-3-carboxamide (APINACA)
• AL-LAD; 6-allyl-6-nor-LSD; 6-Allyl-6-nor-lysergic acid diethylamide
• AM630; Iodopravadoline; [6-iodo-2-methyl-1-[2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl]-1H-indol-3-yl](4-
methoxyphenyl)-methanone
• AM-679; 1-pentyl-3-(2-iodobenzoyl)indole
• AM-694; 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(2-iodobenzoyl)indole; OR 1-[(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indol-3-
yl]-(2-iodophenyl)methanone
• AM-1220; (R)-(1-((1-methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl)-1H-indol-3-yl)(naphthalen-1-
yl)methanone; OR 1-((N-methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl)-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole; OR 1- [(N-
methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl]-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole
• AM-1241; 1-(methylpiperidin-2-ylmethyl)-3-(2-iodo-5-nitrobenzoyl)indole
• AM-1248; 1-[(N-methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl]-3-(adamant-1-oyl)indole
• AM-2201; 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole
Page 23 of 33
Effective Date:7/15/2017
• AM-2233; 1-[(N-methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl]-3-(2-iodobenzoyl)indole
• AM-4113
• AMT; a-methyltryptamine
• ASDB-FUB-187 BAY 38-7271; (-)-(R)-3-(2-Hydroxymethylindanyl-4-oxy)phenyl-4,4,4-
trifluorobutyl-1- sulfonate
• Bufotenine; 3-(b-dimethylaminoethyl) 5-hydroxyindole; 3-(2-di-methylamineothyl) -5-
indolol;N, N-dimethylserotonin; 5-hydroxy-N-dimethyltryptamine; mappine.
• CB-13, SAB-378; Naphthalen-1-yl-(4-pentyloxynaphthalen-1-yl)methanone
• CP47,497
• CP 47,497 homologues; Known as the C6, C7, C8 or C9 homologues and also the
dimethylhexyl, dimethylheptyl; dimethyloctyl or dimethylnonyl homologues
• CP 50,556-1, Levonantradol; 9-hydroxy-6-methyl-3-[5-phenylpentan-2-yl]oxy-
5,6,6a,7,8,9,10,10a-octahydrophenanthridin-1-yl]acetate; OR [(6S,6aR,9R, 10aR)-9-
hydroxy-6-methyl-3-[(2R)-5-ph enylpentan-2-yl]oxy-5,6,6a,7,8,9,10,10a-
octahydrophenanthridin-1-yl] acetate; OR [9-hydroxy-6-methyl-3-[5-phenylpentan-2-
yl]oxy-5,6,6a,7,8,9,10, 10a-octahydrophenanthridin-1-yl]acetate
• CP 55,940; 2-[(1R,2R,5R)-5-hydroxy-2-(3-hydroxypropyl) cyclohexyl]-5-(2-
methyloctan-2-yl)phenol
• cannabicyclohexanol
• Cannabimimetic Agents means, collectively, any chemical that is a cannabinoid receptor
type 1 (CB1) or cannabinoid receptor type 2 (CB2) agonist, or any salts, isomers,
derivatives, or analogs of these chemicals. Structural classes include but are not limited
to: (a) 2-(3-hydroxycyclohexyl)phenol with substitution at the 5-position of the phenolic
ring by alkyl or alkenyl, whether or not substituted on the cyclohexyl ring to any extent.
(b) 3-(1-naphthoyl)indole or 3-(1-naphthyl)indole with substitution at the nitrogen atom of
the indole ring, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent, whether
or not substituted on the naphthoyl or naphthyl ring to any extent. (c) 3-(1-
naphthoyl)pyrrole with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the pyrrole ring, whether or
not further substituted in the pyrrole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the
naphthoyl ring to any extent. (d) 1-(1-naphthylmethyl)indene with substitution of the 3-
position of the indene ring, whether or not further substituted in the indene ring to any
extent, whether or not substituted on the naphthyl ring to any extent.(e) 3-
phenylacetylindole or 3-benzoylindole with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole
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ring, whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any extent, whether or not
substituted on the phenyl ring to any extent. (f) indole- (2,2,3,3-
tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone, with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole
ring, whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any extent, whether or not
substituted on the phenyl ring to any extent. (g) N- adamantyl-indole-3-carboxamide,
with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring, whether or not further substituted
in the indole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the phenyl ring to any
extent. (h) (1,3-thiazol-2- ylidine)-2,2,3,3- tetramethylcyclopropane-1-carboxamide, with
substitution to any extent at any position of the thiazolylidine ring.
• DET; Diethyltryptamine; N, N-Diethyltryptamine
• DIPT; Diisopropyltryptamine
• DMT; Dimethyltryptamine
• DPT; N,N,-dipropyltryptamine
• Dichloropane, RTI-111, O-401; methyl (1R,2S,3S,5S)-3-(3,4-dichlorophenyl)-8-
azabicyclo[3.2.1]octane-2-carboxylate
• EAM-2201; JWH-210 N-(5 fluoropentyl) analog; (4-ethyl-1-naphthalenyl)[1-(5-
fluoropentyl)-1H-indol-3-yl]-methanone
• EG-018; naphthalen-1-yl(9-pentyl-9H-carbazol-3-yl)methanone
• Ethyl-ketamine; 2-(2-chlorophenyl)-2-(ethylamino)cyclohexanone
• FDU-PB-22; naphthalen-1-yl 1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxylate
• FAB-144; (1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazol-3-yl)(2,2,3,3-
tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone
• F-UPB-22
• FUB-AKB48; AKB48 N-(4-fluorobenzyl) analog; N-((3s,5s,7s)-adamantan-1-yl)-1-(4-
fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
• FUB-PB22; FUB-PB-22; quinolin-8-yl-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxylate
• FUBIMINA; AM2201 Benzimidazole analog; BIM-2201, FTHJ; (1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-
benzo[d]imidazol-2-yl)(naphthalen-1-yl)methanone
• HDMP-28; Methylnaphthidate
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• HU-210; (6aR,10aR)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3- (2-methyloctan-2-yl)-
6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c] chromen-1-ol; OR [(6aR,10aR)-9-(hy droxymethyl)- 6,6-
dimethyl-3-(2-methyl octan-2-yl)-6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol; OR 1,1-
Dimethylheptyl-11-hydroxytetrahydrocannabinol
• HU-211, Dexanabinol; (6aS, 10aS)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-
yl)- 6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol; OR (6aS, 10aS)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-
6,6-dimethyl- 3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)-6a,7,10,10a- tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol
• HU-243; 3-dimethylheptyl-11-hydroxyhexahydrocannabinol; canbisol, nabidrox
• HU-308; [(91R,2R,5R)-2-[2,6-dimethoxy-4-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)phenyl]-7,7-dimethyl-4-
bicyclo[3.1.1]hept-3-enyl]methanol
• HU-331; 3-hydroxy-2-[(1R,6R)-3-methyl-6-(1-methylethenyl)-2-cyclohexen-1-yl]-5-
pentyl- 2,5-cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione
•
Ibogaine; 7-Ethyl-6, 6a,7,8,9,10,12, 3-octahydro-2-methoxy-6, 9-methano-5H-pyrido (1’,
2’: 1,2 azepine 4, 5-b) indole; tab ernanthe iboga
• JTE-907; N-(benzol[1,3]dioxol-5-ylmethyl)-7-methoxy-2-oxo-8-pentyloxy-1,2-
dihydroquinoline-3-carboxamide
• JWH-007; 1-pentyl-2-methyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole
• JWH-015; (2-methyl-1-propyl-1H-indol-3-yl)-1-naphthalenylmethanone; OR 1-propyl-2-
methyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole; OR (2-methyl-1-propyl-1H-indol-3-yl)-1- naphthalenyl-
methanone
• JWH-016; (1-butyl-2-methyl-1H-indol-3-yl)-1-naphthalenyl-methanone)
• JWH-018; AM-678; Naphthalen-1-yl-(1-pentylindol-3-yl)methanone
• JWH-019; napthanlen-1-yl-(1-pentylindol-3-yl)methanone; OR 1-hexyl-3-(1-
naphthoyl)indole; OR 1-hexyl-3-(naphthoyl)indole; OR 1-hexyl-3-(naphthalen-1-
oyl)indole
• JWH-022; 1-naphthalenyl[1-(4-penten-1-yl)-1H-indol-3-yl]-methanone
• JWH-030; naphthalen-1-yl-(1-pentylpyrrol- 3-yl)methanone
• JWH-073; naphthalen-1-yl-(1-butylindol-3-yl)methanone
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• JWH-081; 4-methoxynapthalen-1-yl-(1-pentylindol-3-yl)methanone; OR 1-pentyl-3-(4-
methoxy-1-naphthoyl)indole; OR 4-methoxynaphthalen-1-yl-(1-pentylindole-3-yl)
methanone; OR 1-pentyl-3-[1-(4-methoxynaphthoy)]indole
• JWH-098; 1-pentyl-2-methyl-3-(4-methoxy-1-naphthoyl)indole; OR 4-
methoxynaphthalen- 1-yl-(1-pentyl-2-methylindol-3-yl)methanone
• JWH-122; 1-pentyl-3-(4-methyl-1-naphthoyl)indole; OR (4-methyl-1-naphthalenyl)(1-
pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)-methanone
• JWH-147; (1-hexyl-5-phenyl-1H-pyrrol-3-yl)-1-naphthalenyl-methanone
• JWH-164; 1-pentyl-3-(7-methoxy-1-naphthoyl)indole; OR 7-methoxynaphthalen-1-yl-(1-
pentylindol-3-yl)methanone
• JWH-167; 1-pentyl-3-(phenylacetyl)indole
• JWH-175; 3-(napthalen-1-ylmethyl)-1-pentyl-1H-indole; OR 1-Pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl-(1-
naphthyl)methane
• JWH-176; E-1-[1-(1-Naphthalenylmethylene)-1H-inden-3-yl]pentane
• JWH-184; 1-Pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl-(4-methyl-1-naphthyl)methane
• JWH-199
• JWH-200; WIN 55,225; (1-(2-morpholin-4-ylethyl)indol-3-yl)-naphthalen-1-ylmethanone
• JWH-201; 1-pentyl-3-(4-methocyphenylacetyl)indole; OR 1-pentyl-3-(4-
methoxyphenylacetyl)indole
• JWH-203; 2-(2-chlorophenyl)-1-(1-pentylindol-3-yl)ethanone; OR 1-pentyl-3-(2-
chlorophenylacetyl)indole
• JWH-210; 4-ethylnaphthalen-1-yl-(1-pentylindol-3-yl)methanone; OR 1-pentyl-3-(4-
ethyl-1- naphthoyl)indole
• JWH-250; 2-(2-methoxyphenyl)-1-(1-pentylindol-3-yl)ethanone; OR 1-pentyl-3-(2-
methoxyphenylacetyl)indole; OR 1-pentyl-3-(methoxyphenylacetyl)indole; OR 1-(1-
pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)-2-(2-methoxyphenyl)-ethanone
• JWH-251; 2-(2-methylphenyl)-1-(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)ethanone; OR 1-pentyl-3-(2-
methylphenylacetyl)indole
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• JWH-302; 2-(3-methoxyphenyl)-1-(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)-ethanone
• JWH-307; (5-(2-fluorophenyl)-1-pent ylpyrrol-3-yl)-naphthalen-1-ylmethanone
• JWH-370; [5-(2-methylphenyl)-1-pentyl-1H-pyrrol-3-yl]-1-naphthalenyl-methanone
• JWH-398; 1-pentyl-3-(4-chloro-1-naphthoyl)indole
• L-759,633; 3-(1,1-dimethylheptyl)-6aR,7,10,10aR-tetrahydro-1-methoxy-6,6,9-trimethyl-
6H-dibenzo[b,d]pyran
• L-759,656
• Lysergic acid
• Lysergic acid amide
• Lysergic acid dimethylamide
• LSZ; Lysergic acid 2,4-dimethylazetidide, Diazedine, Lambda, LA-SS-AzLysergic acid
diethylamide
• MAM-2201; 4-methyl-1-naphthalenyl(1-fluoropentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone
• MIPT; N-isopropyl-N-methyltryptamine
• MA-CHMINICA; AMB N-METHYLCYCLOHEXYL ANALOG, AB-CHMINACA,
MAB-AB-CHMINACA; methyl (1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indazole-3-carbonyl)-L-
valinate
• MDMB-CHMINICA; (S)-MDMB-CHMINACA; N-[[1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indazol-
3-yl]carbonyl]-3-methyl-L-valine, methyl ester
• Mepirapim; JWH-018-4(methylpiperazine); (4-methylpiperazin-1-yl)(1-pentyl-1H-indol-
3-yl)methanone, monohydrochloride
• Mescaline
• Methoxetamine (MXE); 3-MeO-2-Oxo-PCE; (RS)2-(3-methoxyphenyl)-2-
(ethylamino)cyclohexanone
• MMB-2201; I-AMB; methyl (1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carbonyl)-L-valinate
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• MMB-CHMINACA; (2S)-methyl-2-(1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1 H-indol-3-
ylcarbonylamino)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate
• MN-18; N-1-naphthalenyl-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
• MN-24; NNEI; N-1-naphthalenyl-1-pentyl-1H-indole-3-carboxamide; AM-6527
• Mitragynine
• N-ethyl-3 piperidyl benzilate
• N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate
• NM2201
• Peyote
• Psilocybin
• Psilocin; 4-OH-DMT
• RCS-4, SR-19; [(4-methoxyphenyl)(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone]; OR 1-pentyl-3-
[(4- methoxy)-benzoyl]indole; OR 1-pentyl-3-(4-methoxybenzoyl)indole; OR (4-
methoxyphenyl)(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone
• RCS-8, SR-18; 1-(2-(2-cyclohexylethyl)-1H-indol-3-yl)-2-(2-methyoxyphenylethanone);
OR 1-[2-(2-cyclohexylethyl)-1H-indol-3-yl]-2-methoxyphenylethanone; OR 1-(2-
cyclohexylethyl)-3-(2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole
• STS-135; N-adamantyl-1-pentylindazole-3-carboxamide
• Salvia divinorum
• Salvinorin A, Active ingredient of salvia plant
• SDB-005; naphthalen-1-yl 1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxylate
• SR 144528; 5-(4-chloro-3-methylphenyl)-1-[(4-methylphenyl)methyl]-N-[(1S,2S,4R)-
1,3,3-trimethylbicyclo[2.2.1]hept-2-yl]-1H-pyrazole-3-carboxamide
• STS-144; (1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indol-3-yl)(pyridin-3-yl)methanone
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• Stramonium
• THJ-018; JWH-018 Indazole analog; 1-naphthalenyl(1-pentyl-1H-indazol-3-yl)-
methanone
• THJ-2201; Fluoropentyl JWH-018 Indazole, AM2201 indazole analog, 5-Fluoro
• Tetrahydrocannabinols (Since nomenclature of these substances is not internationally
standardized, compounds of these structures, regardless of numeric designation of atomic
position are covered).
• Thiophene Analog of Phencyclidine; 1-[1-(2-thlenyl) cyclohexyl] piperidine; 2-Thyneyl
Analog of Phencyclidine; TPCP
• UR-144; (1-Pentylindol-3-yl)-(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone
• URB-597; [3-(3-carbamoylphenyl)phenyl]-N-cyclohexylcarbamate
• URB-602; Cyclohexyl [1,1’-biphenyl]-3-ylcarbamate
• URB-754; 6-methyl-2-[(4-methylphenyl)amino]-4H-3,1-benzoxazin-4-one
• URB-937; 3’-carbamoyl-6-hydroxy-[1,1’-biphenyl]-3-yl cyclohexylcarbamate
• Viminol;1-[1-(2-chlorobenzyl)- 1H-pyrrol-2-yl]- 2-(di-sec-butylamino) ethanol
• W-15; (E)-4-chloro-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-2-ylidene)benzenesulfonamide
• WIN 48,098, Pravadoline; (4-Methoxyphenyl)-[2-methy l-1-(2-(4-
morpholinyl)ethyl)indol-3- yl]methanone; OR (4-methoxyphenyl)-[2-methyl-1-(2-
morpholin-4-ylethyl)indol-3- yl]methanone
• WIN 55,212-2; (R)-(+)-[2,3-dihydro-5-methyl-3-(4-morpholinylmethyl)pyrrolo[1,2,3-de]-
1,4-benzoxazin-6-yl]-1-napthalenylmethanone; OR [2,3-Dihydro-5-methyl-3-(4-
morpholinylmethyl)pyrrolo[(1,2,3-de)-1,4-benzoxazin-6-yl]-1-napthalenylmethanone4d9defa81730e09c3.4 "Depressant drug" means any drug which contains any substances, its salt, optical
isomers, salts of its optical isomers, derivatives or analogs of substances, designated in
Section 5.0 of this rule as habit forming because of its effect on the central nervous
system or as having a serious potential for abuse arising out of its effect on the central
nervous system.dd18e4f4abf49a557.0 Hallucinogenic Drugs; Synthetic Cannabinoids; Tryptamines; Cannabinimimetics; Mescaline Analogs; Dissociatives; Trade or Chemical Name 5-MAPB; 5-(2-Methylaminopropyl) Benzofuran
8eb6630ae83b62697.0 Hallucinogenic Drugs; Synthetic Cannabinoids; Tryptamines; Cannabinimimetics;
Mescaline Analogs; Dissociatives; Trade or Chemical Name
• 1-(1-Phenylcyclohexyl)pyrrolidine; PCPy; Rolicyclidine
• 1-[1-(2-Thienyl)cyclohexyl]piperidine; TCP; Tenocyclidine
• 1-[1-(2-Thienyl)cyclohexyl]pyrrolidine; TCPy
• 1-Piperidinocyclohexanecarbonitrile; PCC
• 1-(4-methoxybenzoyl)-4-methylpiperazine; MEXP; Methoxypiperamide
• 2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine; 2,5-dimethoxy-a-methylphenethylamin; 2,5 DMA
• 2C-B; 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-benzeneethanamine, monohydrochloride
• 2C-C; 2-(4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine
• 2C-D; 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-methylphenyl)ethanamine
• 2C-E; 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-ethylphenyl)ethanamine
• 2C-H; 2-(2,5-Dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine
• 2C-I; 2-(4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine
• 2C-N; 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-nitro-phenyl)ethanamine
Effective Date:7/15/2019
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• 2C-P; 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylphenyl)ethanamine
• 2C-T-2; 2-[4-(Ethylthio)-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl]ethanamine
• 2C-T-4; 2-[4-(Isopropylthio)-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl]ethanamine
• 2C-T-7; 2,5-dimethoxy-4-(propylthio)-benzeneethanamine, monohydrochloride
• 2C-TFM-NBOMe; 2-(4-trifluoromethyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-[(2-
methoxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine
• 2CBCB-NBOMe; N-(2-methoxybenzyl)-1-[(7R)-3-bromo-2,5-
dimethoxybicyclo[4.2.0]octa- 1,3,5-trien-7-yl]methanamine
• 2CBFly-NBOMe; N-(2-Methoxybenzyl)-1-(8-bromo-2,3,6,7-tetrahydrobenzo[1,2-b:4,5-
b’]difuran-4-yl)-2-aminoethane
• 2-Fluorodeschloroketamine; 2-Fl-2'-Oxo-PCM; Fluoroketamine; 2-FDCK
• 2-MeO-ketamine; methoxyketamine; 2-MeO-2-deschloroketamine
• 2-Trifluoromethyldeschloroketamine; 2-TFMDCK; TFM-K
• 3,4,5-trimethoxy amphetamine; TMA; Mescalamphetamine
• 3,4-methylenedioxy amphetamine; MDA
• 3-HO-PCE; 3-[1-(ethylamino)cyclohexyl]phenol; 3-hydroxyethicyclidine
• 3-HO-PCP; 3-Hydroxyphencyclidine
• 3-Methoxyphencyclidine; 3-MeO-PCP; 1-[1-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexyl]-piperidine
• 4-AcO-DET; 3-(2-Diethylaminoethyl)-1H-indol-4-yl acetate; 4-acetoxy-N,N-
diethyltryptamine; Ethacetin
• 4-AcO-DMT; 3-[2-(Dimethylamino)ethyl]-1H-indol-4-yl acetate; 4-acetoxy-N,N-
dimethyltryptamine
• 4-AcO-DPT
• 4-AcO-MET; 3-(2-Ethyl(methyl)aminoethyl)-1H-indol-4-yl acetate
Effective Date:7/15/2019
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• 4-bromo-2, 5-dimethoxyamphetamine; DOB; bromo-DMA
• 4-HO-MET; 3-(2-(ethyl(methyl)amino)ethyl)-1H-indol-4-ol
• 4-HO-MiPT; 3-(2-[Isopropyl(methyl)amino]ethyl)-1H-indol-4-ol; 4-hydroxy-MiPT
• 4-HO-MPMI; (R)-3-(N-methylpyrrolidin-2-ylmethyl)-4-hydoxyindole
• 4-HO-MPT; 3-{2-[methyl(propyl)amino]ethyl}-1H-indol-4-ol
• 4-MeO-AET
• 4-MeO-MiPT
• 4-MeO-PCP; 1-[1-(4-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexyl]-piperidine; 4-Methoxyphencyclidine;
Methoxydine
• 4-methoxyamphetamine; 4-methoxy-a-methylphenethylamine;
paramethoxyamphetamine; PMA; 4-MA
• 4-methyl-2, 5-dimethoxyamphetamine; 4-methyl-2, 5-dimethoxy-a-ethylphenethylamine;
DOM; STP
• 4-methyl-AET
• 5-APB; 5-(2-aminopropyl)benzofuran
• 5-EAPB; 5-(2-Ethylaminopropyl)Benzofuran
• 5F-APICA; N-(adamantan-1-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamide
• 5F-AMB; 5-fluoro AMP
• 5F-ADBICA; 5-fluoro ADBICA; N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(5-
fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamide
• 5F-AKB48; AKB48 N-(5-fluoropentyl) analog; 5f-APINACA; APINACA 5-
fluoropentyl analog; N-((3s,5s,7s)-adamantan-1-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-
carboxamide
• 5F-MN-018; 5-fluoro MN-18; N-1-naphthalenyl-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
Effective Date:7/15/2019
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• 5F-MN24; 5-fluoro NNEI; 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-N-(naphthalen-1-yl)-1H-indole-3-
carboxamide
• 5F-PCN; 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-N-(naphthalen-1-yl)-1H-pyrrolo[3,2-c]pyridine-3-
carboxamide
• 5F-SDB-005; naphthalen-1-yl 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxylate
• 5F-THJ-2201; (1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazol-3-yl)(naphthalen-1-yl)methanone
• 5FAB-FUBINACA
• 5FAB-PINACA; AB-PINACA 5 fluoro analog; (S)-N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-
2-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
• 5FPB22; 5-fluoro PB-22; 5-fluoro QUPIC; 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-8-quinolinyl ester-1H-
indole-3-carboxylic acid
• 5FSDB-006; 5-fluoro SDB-006; N-benzyl-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamide
• 5-IT; 5-(2-aminopropyl)indole
• 5-MAPB; 5-(2-Methylaminopropyl) Benzofuran
• 5-MeO-AMT; 1-(5-methoxy-1H-indol-3-yl)propan-2-amine
• 5-MeO-DALT; N-ally1-N-[2-(5-methoxy-1H-indol-3-yl)ethyl]prop-2-en-1-amine; 5-
MED
• 5-MeO-DET; N,N-Diethyl-5-Methoxytryptamine; 5-methoxy-N,N-Diethyltryptamine
• 5-MeO-DiPT; 3-[2-(Diisopropylamino)ethyl]-5-methoxyindole
• 5-MeO-DMT; 2-(5-methoxy-1H-indol-3-yl)-N,N-dimethylethanamine
• 5-MeO-DPT; N-[2-(5-methoxy-1H-indol-3-yl)ethyl]-N-propylpropan-1-amine
• 5-MeO-MDA; 5-methoxy-3, 4-methylenedioxy amphetamine
• 5-MeO-MiPT; N-[2-(5-methoxy-1H-indol-3-yl)ethyl]-N-methylpropan-2-amine
• 5-MeO-MPMI; (R)-3-(N-methylpyrrolidin-2-ylmethyl)-5-methoxyindole
Effective Date:7/15/2019
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• 5F-UR-144; (5-fluoropentylindol-3-yl)-(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone;
XLR11
• 6-APB; 6-(2-aminopropyl)benzofuran
• 7-hydroxymitragynine; (αE,2S,3S,7aS,12bS)-3-Ethyl-1,2,3,4,6,7,7a,12b-octahydro-7a-
hydroxy-8-methoxy-α-(methoxymethylene)indolo[2,3-a]quinolizine-2-acetic acid methyl
ester
• 25B-NBOMe; 2C-B NBOMe; BOM 2-CB; Cimbi-36; 2-(4-bromo-2,5-
dimethoxyphenyl)-N- [(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine
• 25C-NBOMe; 2C-C-NBOMe; NBOMe-2C-C; Cimbi-82; 2-(4-chloro-2,5-
dimethoxyphenyl)-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine
• 25I-NBF; 2-(4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-[(2-fluorophenyl)methyl]ethanamine
• 25I-NBMD; NBMD-2C-I; Cimbi-29; 2-(4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-[(2,3-
methylenedioxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine
• 25I-NBOH; 2-((2-(4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethylamino)methyl)phenol
• 25I-NBOMe; 2-(4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine
• A1 dodeca-2E, 4E, 8Z, 10Z – tetraenoic acid isobutyl amide
• A2 dodeca-2E, 4E, dienoic acid idobutylamide
• A-796,260; 1-(2-morpholin-4-ylethyl)-1H-indol-3-yl]-(2,2,3,3 tetramethylcyclopropyl)
methanone
• A-834,735; 1-(tetrahydropyran-4-ylmethyl)-1H-indol-3-yl]-(2,2,3,3-
tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone
• A-836,339; N-[3-(2-methoxyethyl)-4,5-dimethyl-1,3-thiazol-2-ylidene]-2,2,3,3-
tetramethylcyclopropane-1-carboxamide
• AB-001; 1-pentyl-3-(1-adamantoyl) indole
• AB-034; [1-[(N-methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl]-1H-indole-3-yl]-(2,2,3,3-
tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone
Effective Date:7/15/2019
Page 23 of 35
• AB-CHMINACA; N-[(1S)-1-(aminocarbonyl)-2-methylpropyl]-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-
1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
• AB-FUBINACA; N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-
indazole-3-carboxamide
• AB-FUBINACA 2-fluorobenzyl isomer
• AB-PINACA; (s)-N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-
carbaxamide
• ACEA; N-(2-chloroethyl)-5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z-eicosatetraenamide
• ACPA; N-cyclopropyl-5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z-eicosatetraenamide
• ADB-CHMINACA
• ADBICA; N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-pentyl-1H-indole-3-
carboxamide
• ADB-PINACA; N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-
carboxamide
• AH-7921; 3,4-dichloro-N-[(1dimethylamino)cyclohexylmethyl]benzamide
• AKB48; N-adamantyl-1-pentylindazole-3-carboxamide; APINACA
• AL-LAD; 6-allyl-6-nor-LSD; 6-Allyl-6-nor-lysergic acid diethylamide
• AM-630; Iodopravadoline; [6-iodo-2-methyl-1-[2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl]-1H-indol-3-
yl](4-methoxyphenyl)-methanone
• AM-679; 1-pentyl-3-(2-iodobenzoyl)indole
• AM-694; 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(2-iodobenzoyl)indole; 1-[(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indol-3-
yl]-(2-iodophenyl)methanone
• AM-1220; (R)-(1-((1-methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl)-1H-indol-3-yl)(naphthalen-1-
yl)methanone; 1-((N-methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl)-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole; 1- [(N-
methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl]-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole
• AM-1241; 1-(methylpiperidin-2-ylmethyl)-3-(2-iodo-5-nitrobenzoyl)indole
Effective Date:7/15/2019
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• AM-1248; 1-[(N-methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl]-3-(adamant-1-oyl)indole
• AM-2201; 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole
• AM-2233; 1-[(N-methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl]-3-(2-iodobenzoyl)indole
• AM-4113
• AMT; a-methyltryptamine
• ASDB-FUB-187
• BAY 38-7271; (-)-(R)-3-(2-Hydroxymethylindanyl-4-oxy)phenyl-4,4,4-trifluorobutyl-1-
sulfonate
• Bromo-dragonfly; 1-(4-bromofuro[2,3-f]benzofuran-8-yl)propan-2-amine
• Bufotenine; 3-(b-dimethylaminoethyl) 5-hydroxyindole; 3-(2-di-methylamineothyl) -5-
indolol; N, N-dimethylserotonin; 5-hydroxy-N-dimethyltryptamine; mappine.
• CB-13; SAB-378; CRA-13; Naphthalen-1-yl-(4-pentyloxynaphthalen-1-yl)methanone
• CP47,497
• CP 47,497 homologues; Known as the C6, C7, C8 or C9 homologues and also the
dimethylhexyl, dimethylheptyl; dimethyloctyl or dimethylnonyl homologues
• CP 50,556-1; Levonantradol; 9-hydroxy-6-methyl-3-[5-phenylpentan-2-yl]oxy-
5,6,6a,7,8,9,10,10a-octahydrophenanthridin-1-yl]acetate; [(6S,6aR,9R, 10aR)-9-
hydroxy-6-methyl-3-[(2R)-5-ph enylpentan-2-yl]oxy-5,6,6a,7,8,9,10,10a-
octahydrophenanthridin-1-yl] acetate; [9-hydroxy-6-methyl-3-[5-phenylpentan-2-
yl]oxy-5,6,6a,7,8,9,10, 10a-octahydrophenanthridin-1-yl]acetate
• CP 55,940; 2-[(1R,2R,5R)-5-hydroxy-2-(3-hydroxypropyl) cyclohexyl]-5-(2-
methyloctan-2-yl)phenol
• cannabicyclohexanol
• Cannabimimetic Agents
• CUMYL- BICA
• CUMYL-5F-PICA
Effective Date:7/15/2019
Page 25 of 35
• CUMYL-5F-PINACA
• CUMYL-PICA
• CUMYL-PINACA
• CUMYL-THPINACA
• delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol
• DET; Diethyltryptamine; N, N-Diethyltryptamine
• DiPT; Diisopropyltryptamine
• DMT; Dimethyltryptamine
• DPT; N,N,-dipropyltryptamine
• Dichloropane; RTI-111; O-401; methyl (1R,2S,3S,5S)-3-(3,4-dichlorophenyl)-8-
azabicyclo[3.2.1]octane-2-carboxylate
• EAM-2201; JWH-210 N-(5 fluoropentyl) analog; (4-ethyl-1-naphthalenyl)[1-(5-
fluoropentyl)-1H-indol-3-yl]-methanone
• EG-018; naphthalen-1-yl(9-pentyl-9H-carbazol-3-yl)methanone
• Ethyl-ketamine; 2-(2-chlorophenyl)-2-(ethylamino)cyclohexanone
• FDU-PB-22; naphthalen-1-yl 1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxylate
• FAB-144; (1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazol-3-yl)(2,2,3,3-
tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone
• FUB-AKB48; AKB48 N-(4-fluorobenzyl) analog; N-((3s,5s,7s)-adamantan-1-yl)-1-(4-
fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
• FUB-AMB; MMB-FUBINACA; AMB-FUBINACA; Methyl 2-(1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-
indazole-3-carboxamido)-3-methylbutanoate and its optical, positional, and geometric
isomers, salts, and salts of isomers
• FUB-PB22; FUB-PB-22; quinolin-8-yl-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxylate
Effective Date:7/15/2019
Page 26 of 35
• FUBIMINA; AM2201 Benzimidazole analog; BIM-2201; FTHJ; (1-(5-fluoropentyl)-
1H-benzo[d]imidazol-2-yl)(naphthalen-1-yl)methanone
• HDMP-28; Methylnaphthidate
• HU-210; (6aR,10aR)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3- (2-methyloctan-2-yl)-
6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c] chromen-1-ol; [(6aR,10aR)-9-(hy droxymethyl)- 6,6-
dimethyl-3-(2-methyl octan-2-yl)-6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol; 1,1-
Dimethylheptyl-11-hydroxytetrahydrocannabinol
• HU-211; Dexanabinol; (6aS, 10aS)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-
2-yl)- 6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol; (6aS, 10aS)-9-(hydroxymethyl)- 6,6-
dimethyl- 3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)-6a,7,10,10a- tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol
• HU-243; 3-dimethylheptyl-11-hydroxyhexahydrocannabinol; canbisol; nabidrox
• HU-308; [(91R,2R,5R)-2-[2,6-dimethoxy-4-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)phenyl]-7,7-dimethyl-4-
bicyclo[3.1.1]hept-3-enyl]methanol
• HU-331; 3-hydroxy-2-[(1R,6R)-3-methyl-6-(1-methylethenyl)-2-cyclohexen-1-yl]-5-
pentyl- 2,5-cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione
• Ibogaine; 7-Ethyl-6, 6a,7,8,9,10,12, 3-octahydro-2-methoxy-6, 9-methano-5H-pyrido (1’,
2’: 1,2 azepine 4, 5-b) indole; tab ernanthe iboga
• JTE-907; N-(benzol[1,3]dioxol-5-ylmethyl)-7-methoxy-2-oxo-8-pentyloxy-1,2-
dihydroquinoline-3-carboxamide
• JWH-007; 1-pentyl-2-methyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole
• JWH-015; (2-methyl-1-propyl-1H-indol-3-yl)-1-naphthalenylmethanone; 1-propyl-2-
methyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole; (2-methyl-1-propyl-1H-indol-3-yl)-1- naphthalenyl-
methanone
• JWH-016; (1-butyl-2-methyl-1H-indol-3-yl)-1-naphthalenyl-methanone)
• JWH-018; AM-678; Naphthalen-1-yl-(1-pentylindol-3-yl)methanone
• JWH-019; napthanlen-1-yl-(1-pentylindol-3-yl)methanone; 1-hexyl-3-(1-
naphthoyl)indole; 1-hexyl-3-(naphthoyl)indole; 1-hexyl-3-(naphthalen-1- oyl)indole
• JWH-022; 1-naphthalenyl[1-(4-penten-1-yl)-1H-indol-3-yl]-methanone
Effective Date:7/15/2019
Page 27 of 35
• JWH-030; naphthalen-1-yl-(1-pentylpyrrol- 3-yl)methanone
• JWH-073; naphthalen-1-yl-(1-butylindol-3-yl)methanone
• JWH-081; 4-methoxynapthalen-1-yl-(1-pentylindol-3-yl)methanone; 1-pentyl-3-(4-
methoxy-1-naphthoyl)indole; 4-methoxynaphthalen-1-yl-(1-pentylindole-3-yl)
methanone; 1-pentyl-3-[1-(4-methoxynaphthoy)]indole
• JWH-098; 1-pentyl-2-methyl-3-(4-methoxy-1-naphthoyl)indole; 4-methoxynaphthalen-
1-yl-(1-pentyl-2-methylindol-3-yl)methanone
• JWH-122; 1-pentyl-3-(4-methyl-1-naphthoyl)indole; (4-methyl-1-naphthalenyl)(1-
pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)-methanone
• JWH-147; (1-hexyl-5-phenyl-1H-pyrrol-3-yl)-1-naphthalenyl-methanone
• JWH-164; 1-pentyl-3-(7-methoxy-1-naphthoyl)indole; 7-methoxynaphthalen-1-yl-(1-
pentylindol-3-yl)methanone
• JWH-167; 1-pentyl-3-(phenylacetyl)indole
• JWH-175; 3-(napthalen-1-ylmethyl)-1-pentyl-1H-indole; 1-Pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl-(1-
naphthyl)methane
• JWH-176; E-1-[1-(1-Naphthalenylmethylene)-1H-inden-3-yl]pentane
• JWH-184; 1-Pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl-(4-methyl-1-naphthyl)methane
• JWH-199
• JWH-200; WIN 55,225; (1-(2-morpholin-4-ylethyl)indol-3-yl)-naphthalen-1-
ylmethanone
• JWH-201; 1-pentyl-3-(4-methocyphenylacetyl)indole; 1-pentyl-3-(4-
methoxyphenylacetyl)indole
• JWH-203; 2-(2-chlorophenyl)-1-(1-pentylindol-3-yl)ethanone; 1-pentyl-3-(2-
chlorophenylacetyl)indole
• JWH-210; 4-ethylnaphthalen-1-yl-(1-pentylindol-3-yl)methanone; 1-pentyl-3-(4-ethyl-1-
naphthoyl)indole
Effective Date:7/15/2019
Page 28 of 35
• JWH-250; 2-(2-methoxyphenyl)-1-(1-pentylindol-3-yl)ethanone; 1-pentyl-3-(2-
methoxyphenylacetyl)indole; OR 1-pentyl-3-(methoxyphenylacetyl)indole; 1-(1- pentyl-
1H-indol-3-yl)-2-(2-methoxyphenyl)-ethanone
• JWH-251; 2-(2-methylphenyl)-1-(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)ethanone; 1-pentyl-3-(2-
methylphenylacetyl)indole
• JWH-302; 2-(3-methoxyphenyl)-1-(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)-ethanone
• JWH-307; (5-(2-fluorophenyl)-1-pent ylpyrrol-3-yl)-naphthalen-1-ylmethanone
• JWH-370; [5-(2-methylphenyl)-1-pentyl-1H-pyrrol-3-yl]-1-naphthalenyl-methanone
• JWH-398; 1-pentyl-3-(4-chloro-1-naphthoyl)indole
• L-759,633; 3-(1,1-dimethylheptyl)-6aR,7,10,10aR-tetrahydro-1-methoxy-6,6,9-trimethyl-
6H-dibenzo[b,d]pyran
• L-759,656
• Lysergic acid
• Lysergic acid amide
• Lysergic acid dimethylamide; N,N-Dimethyllysergamide
• LSZ; Lysergic acid 2,4-dimethylazetidide; Diazedine; Lambda; LA-SS-AzLysergic
acid diethylamide
• MAM-2201; 4-methyl-1-naphthalenyl(1-fluoropentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone
• MiPT; N-isopropyl-N-methyltryptamine
• MAB-CHMINACA; N-(1-amino-3,3dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-
1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
• MA-CHMINICA; AMB N-methylcyclohexyl analog; AB-CHMINACA; MAB-AB-
CHMINACA; methyl (1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indazole-3-carbonyl)-L-valinate
• MDMB-CHMINICA; (S)-MDMB-CHMINACA; N-[[1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indazol-
3-yl]carbonyl]-3-methyl-L-valine, methyl ester
Effective Date:7/15/2019
Page 29 of 35
• Mepirapim; JWH-018-4(methylpiperazine); (4-methylpiperazin-1-yl)(1-pentyl-1H-indol-
3-yl)methanone, monohydrochloride
• Mescaline
• Methoxetamine; MXE; 3-MeO-2-Oxo-PCE; (RS)2-(3-methoxyphenyl)-2-
(ethylamino)cyclohexanone
• MMB-2201; I-AMB; methyl (1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carbonyl)-L-valinate
• MMB-CHMINACA; (2S)-methyl-2-(1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1 H-indol-3-
ylcarbonylamino)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate
• MN-18; N-1-naphthalenyl-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
• MN-24; NNEI; N-1-naphthalenyl-1-pentyl-1H-indole-3-carboxamide; AM-6527
• Mitragynine
• Nabilone
• N-ethyl-3 piperidyl benzilate; JB-318
• N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate; JB-336
• NM-2201; CBL-2201
• Parahexyl
• Peyote
• Psilocybin
• Psilocin; 4-OH-DMT
• PX-1; 5-Fluoro APP-PICA; SRF-30
• PX-2; 5-Fluoro APP-PINACA; FU-PX
• RCS-4; SR-19; [(4-methoxyphenyl)(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone]; 1-pentyl-3-[(4-
methoxy)-benzoyl]indole; 1-pentyl-3-(4-methoxybenzoyl)indole; (4- methoxyphenyl)(1-
pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone
Effective Date:7/15/2019
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• RCS-8; SR-18; 1-(2-(2-cyclohexylethyl)-1H-indol-3-yl)-2-(2-methyoxyphenylethanone);
1-[2-(2-cyclohexylethyl)-1H-indol-3-yl]-2-methoxyphenylethanone; 1-(2-
cyclohexylethyl)-3-(2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole
• STS-135; N-adamantyl-1-pentylindazole-3-carboxamide
• Salvia divinorum
• Salvinorin A, Active ingredient of salvia plant
• SDB-005; naphthalen-1-yl 1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxylate
• SR 144528; 5-(4-chloro-3-methylphenyl)-1-[(4-methylphenyl)methyl]-N-[(1S,2S,4R)-
1,3,3-trimethylbicyclo[2.2.1]hept-2-yl]-1H-pyrazole-3-carboxamide
• STS-144; (1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indol-3-yl)(pyridin-3-yl)methanone
• Stramonium
• THJ-018; JWH-018 Indazole analog; 1-naphthalenyl(1-pentyl-1H-indazol-3-yl)-
methanone
• THJ-2201; Fluoropentyl JWH-018 Indazole; AM2201 indazole analog; 5-Fluoro
• Tetrahydrocannabinols (Since nomenclature of these substances is not internationally
standardized, compounds of these structures, regardless of numeric designation of atomic
position are covered).
• Thiophene Analog of Phencyclidine; 1-[1-(2-thlenyl) cyclohexyl] piperidine; 2-Thyneyl
Analog of Phencyclidine; TPCP
• Trazodone
• UR-144; (1-Pentylindol-3-yl)-(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone
• URB-597; [3-(3-carbamoylphenyl)phenyl]-N-cyclohexylcarbamate
• URB-602; Cyclohexyl [1,1’-biphenyl]-3-ylcarbamate
• URB-754; 6-methyl-2-[(4-methylphenyl)amino]-4H-3,1-benzoxazin-4-one
• URB-937; 3’-carbamoyl-6-hydroxy-[1,1’-biphenyl]-3-yl cyclohexylcarbamate
Effective Date:7/15/2019
Page 31 of 35
• Viminol; 1-[1-(2-chlorobenzyl)- 1H-pyrrol-2-yl]- 2-(di-sec-butylamino) ethanol
• W-15; (E)-4-chloro-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-2-ylidene)benzenesulfonamide
• WIN 48,098; Pravadoline; (4-Methoxyphenyl)-[2-methy l-1-(2-(4-
morpholinyl)ethyl)indol-3- yl]methanone; (4-methoxyphenyl)-[2-methyl-1-(2-morpholin-
4-ylethyl)indol-3- yl]methanone
• WIN 55,212-2; (R)-(+)-[2,3-dihydro-5-methyl-3-(4-morpholinylmethyl)pyrrolo[1,2,3-
de]- 1,4-benzoxazin-6-yl]-1-napthalenylmethanone; [2,3-Dihydro-5-methyl-3-(4-
morpholinylmethyl)pyrrolo[(1,2,3-de)-1,4-benzoxazin-6-yl]-1-napthalenylmethanone69b793556ebd8d5bThis rule is established under the authority of 18 V.S.A. §§ 4201 and 4202 which authorizes the Vermont Board of Health to designate regulated drugs for the protection of public health and safety. • 4-HO-MET; 3-(2-(ethyl(methyl)amino)ethyl)-1H-indol-4-ol
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